The nurse is caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension. The nurse knows that which manifestation is common with this disorder?
Dyspnea on exertion.
Fever.
Increased appetite.
Intermittent claudication.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Dyspnea on exertion is the most common initial symptom of pulmonary hypertension. This condition involves increased vascular resistance in the pulmonary arteries, which elevates pressure and makes it more difficult for the right ventricle to pump blood to the lungs. This reduced cardiac output and impaired gas exchange lead to shortness of breath during physical activity.
Choice B rationale
Fever is not a typical manifestation of pulmonary hypertension. Fever is a systemic response to an infectious or inflammatory process. Pulmonary hypertension is a hemodynamic disorder characterized by elevated blood pressure in the lung arteries. While an underlying inflammatory condition could cause fever, fever itself is not a direct symptom of pulmonary hypertension.
Choice C rationale
Increased appetite is not a typical manifestation of pulmonary hypertension. In fact, patients with this condition may experience anorexia, nausea, and vomiting, especially in advanced stages, due to gastrointestinal congestion from right-sided heart failure. Increased appetite is not a recognized symptom and would be an unexpected finding.
Choice D rationale
Intermittent claudication is a symptom of peripheral artery disease, caused by arterial insufficiency in the legs. It presents as leg pain during exercise that is relieved by rest. This is not a manifestation of pulmonary hypertension, which affects the pulmonary circulation and heart, not the systemic arteries supplying the limbs
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
This is an expected finding. Following a thoracotomy, a certain amount of drainage is anticipated from the chest tube as a result of inflammation and bleeding from the surgical site. A drainage volume of 50 mL is considered normal in the immediate postoperative period and should be monitored closely. However, if the drainage exceeds 100 mL/hour, it could indicate hemorrhage and requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale
This is a correct principle of chest tube management. The drainage system must be kept below the level of the patient's chest to prevent fluid from flowing back into the pleural cavity. The principle of gravity ensures that air and fluid from the pleural space continue to drain into the collection chamber, which is essential for re-expanding the lung and maintaining negative intrapleural pressure.
Choice C rationale
This is an essential component of chest tube care. An occlusive dressing is applied over the chest tube insertion site to prevent air from entering the pleural space from the outside. This dressing ensures that the closed drainage system remains airtight and prevents a pneumothorax, which could cause the lung to collapse again. The dressing must be kept intact and taped on all sides.
Choice D rationale
Excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber is an unexpected finding. The water seal chamber should normally have gentle tidaling (fluctuations) with respirations, indicating changes in intrapleural pressure. Constant, vigorous bubbling suggests a significant air leak, which could be from the insertion site, tubing, or within the chest, indicating a persistent pneumothorax or a problem with the system. It needs to be investigated.
Choice E rationale
Vigorous bubbling in the suction control chamber is an incorrect finding. The suction control chamber should have gentle, continuous bubbling to indicate that the appropriate level of suction is being applied. Vigorous or turbulent bubbling is inefficient, causes the water to evaporate quickly, and does not increase the amount of suction applied to the chest. It simply indicates excessive airflow
Correct Answer is ["2600"]
Explanation
The patient has an order for Percocet 2 tabs qh prn for pain. Based on the label below, if the patient takes 2 tabs every 6 hours, how much acetaminophen will the patient take in 24 hours?.
Step 1: Calculate the amount of acetaminophen per dose. 2 tabs × 325 mg/tab = 650 mg.
Step 2: Determine the number of doses in 24 hours. 24 hours ÷ 6 hours = 4 doses.
Step 3: Calculate the total amount of acetaminophen in 24 hours. 650 mg/dose × 4 doses = 2600 mg. The patient will take 2600 mg of acetaminophen in 24 hours.
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