The nurse is caring for a client after a coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client is exhibiting pitting edema of the lower extremities and jugular venous distention with increased central venous pressure. Which condition should the nurse suspect the client is experiencing based on these findings?
Internal bleeding.
Right-sided heart failure.
Cardiac tamponade.
Left ventricular dysfunction.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Internal bleeding may present with symptoms such as hypotension, tachycardia, and signs of blood loss, but it typically does not cause pitting edema or jugular venous distention.
B. Right-sided heart failure can cause systemic venous congestion, leading to pitting edema of the lower extremities and jugular venous distention due to increased central venous pressure.

C. Cardiac tamponade presents with Beck's triad (hypotension, distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds) and is typically more acute in onset compared to the gradual development of symptoms seen in right-sided heart failure.
D. Left ventricular dysfunction primarily causes symptoms of pulmonary congestion, such as dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles, rather than pitting edema and jugular venous distention.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. This intervention is likely to be ordered due to the patient's fever and elevated heart rate, which may suggest dehydration or the need for increased fluid intake to support hemodynamic stability and mitigate the effects of fever and potential dehydration from fever and nausea.
B. Given the diagnosis of Pneumocystis pneumonia, the patient will likely be on or start antibiotics specific to this infection, such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Monitoring for adverse reactions is crucial, especially in a newly diagnosed HIV- positive patient who might be starting multiple new medications.
C. While it is important to monitor CD4 counts in HIV-positive patients to guide treatment decisions, repeating the CD4 count immediately might not be prioritized unless there are specific clinical changes that suggest a rapid decline in immune function. Given the recent test results showing a CD4 count of 443 cells/mm^3, immediate retesting might not be clinically justified unless guided by other symptoms or considerations not detailed here.
D. Pneumocystis pneumonia does not require airborne isolation as it is not typically contagious between people under normal circumstances. Instead, it arises as an opportunistic infection in individuals with weakened immune systems. Hence, this order would not be appropriate unless there were other infections suspected that require such precautions.
E. The patient reports severe nausea, which not only is distressing but can also prevent the patient from taking oral medications and maintain necessary nutrition. Administering an antiemetic can help manage this symptom effectively.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Muscle atrophy may indicate various underlying conditions but is not typically associated with an exacerbation of SLE. While it should be noted, it is not the most critical finding to report in this context.
B. Low-grade fever is a common symptom of SLE exacerbation and may not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
C. Joint pain is a hallmark symptom of SLE exacerbation but may not warrant immediate reporting unless it is severe or debilitating.
D. Hematuria can indicate lupus nephritis, a serious complication of SLE. Prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial for appropriate management and prevention of further kidney damage.
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