The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client was given a medical prescription for tizanidine. What information would the nurse provide regarding this medication? Tizanidine is

a sleep aid and used to promote sleep along with melatonin.

a muscle relaxant medication used to reduce muscle spasms.

an antibiotic medication used to treat bacterial infections.

an opiate and is used to relieve severe pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Tizanidine is a sleep aid and used to promote sleep along with melatonin:

This is incorrect. Tizanidine is not classified as a sleep aid. While muscle relaxants like tizanidine may cause drowsiness as a side effect, its primary purpose is to reduce muscle spasms rather than to promote sleep. Using it in combination with melatonin for sleep would not be appropriate unless specifically prescribed by a healthcare provider.

B. Tizanidine is a muscle relaxant medication used to reduce muscle spasms:

Tizanidine is a centrally acting muscle relaxant that is commonly used to treat muscle spasms and spasticity. In clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), spasticity can be a significant symptom, leading to muscle stiffness and discomfort. Tizanidine helps by relaxing the muscles and alleviating the muscle tightness associated with ALS. It works by inhibiting nerve impulses that cause muscles to contract, thus reducing spasticity and improving mobility. This medication is not intended for sleep promotion or pain relief directly, but rather to manage muscle spasms.

C. Tizanidine is an antibiotic medication used to treat bacterial infections:

This is incorrect. Tizanidine is not an antibiotic and has no role in treating bacterial infections. It is a muscle relaxant used for managing spasticity, not an antimicrobial drug.

D. Tizanidine is an opiate and is used to relieve severe pain:

This is incorrect. Tizanidine is not an opiate and does not belong to the class of opioids. It does not have the pain-relieving effects of opioid analgesics. While it may provide some relief from muscle discomfort, it is not used to treat severe pain in the way opiates like morphine or oxycodone are. Tizanidine’s primary purpose is to address muscle spasticity, not pain management.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Hyperglycemia:
Although hyperglycemia can occur as a result of stress or corticosteroid use during the treatment of GBS (such as in the case of plasma exchange or IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) therapy), it is not the primary complication associated with GBS. While hyperglycemia requires monitoring and management, respiratory failure is a more immediate and critical concern.

B. Urinary retention:
Urinary retention can occur in some clients with neurologic disorders like GBS, but it is not as life-threatening as respiratory failure. The autonomic nervous system, which controls bladder function, may be affected, but urinary retention is usually manageable with intermittent catheterization or other interventions. It does not carry the same immediate risks to life or organ function as respiratory failure.

C. Respiratory failure:
In Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, which can lead to progressive muscle weakness and paralysis. The most significant and potentially life-threatening complication of GBS is respiratory failure. This occurs because the paralysis can affect the muscles involved in breathing, including the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, leading to impaired ventilation. As the weakness progresses, the client may become unable to maintain effective breathing, requiring mechanical ventilation. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress (e.g., increasing work of breathing, tachypnea, decreased breath sounds, or a drop in oxygen saturation) is critical in GBS, especially during the acute phase of the disease.

D. Hypertension:
Hypertension may be seen in some cases of GBS, particularly during the early stages of the disease, due to the autonomic dysfunction that can result from nerve involvement. However, hypotension (low blood pressure) is more commonly associated with the autonomic dysfunction in GBS rather than hypertension. Regardless, respiratory failure remains the most urgent complication to monitor for in clients with GBS.

A. Assess for conjunctival bleeding B. Encourage the use of sunglasses when outside C. Alternate the use of an eye patch on each eye D. Apply cool compresses for pain relief E. This result is consistent with partially compensated respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH would be elevated (alkalotic), PaCO2 would be low (indicating hyperventilation), and the kidneys would attempt to compensate by lowering bicarbonate (HCO3). In this case, the low PaCO2 (23 mmHg) and the low HCO3 (14 mEq/L) demonstrate partial compensation. The pH is also elevated at 7.64, which aligns with alkalosis. This is the correct answer for partially compensated respiratory alkalosis.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Assess for conjunctival bleeding
Conjunctival bleeding refers to blood in the white part of the eye (the conjunctiva), which is typically associated with trauma, infections, or certain blood disorders, but it is not a common cause of diplopia (double vision). Diplopia in multiple sclerosis (MS) is more often due to nerve damage affecting the eye muscles or the pathways controlling eye movement. Therefore, assessing for conjunctival bleeding is not a priority intervention for a client with diplopia related to MS.

B) Encourage the use of sunglasses when outside
While wearing sunglasses may help alleviate light sensitivity, which is a common symptom in individuals with MS, it is not the most appropriate intervention for treating diplopia itself. Diplopia is typically caused by issues with eye muscle control or coordination, often related to the central nervous system. Therefore, while sunglasses might provide comfort, they do not address the underlying cause of the double vision.

C) Alternate the use of an eye patch on each eye
Alternating the use of an eye patch on each eye is an effective intervention for managing diplopia, especially when the cause is related to misalignment or weakness of the eye muscles. The eye patch works by covering one eye at a time to prevent double vision. In MS, this technique can help reduce the visual disturbance and provide relief until further interventions (such as eye exercises or medications) can be considered. This approach is commonly used to manage diplopia caused by nerve involvement affecting ocular muscle function.

D) Apply cool compresses for pain relief
Cool compresses may provide relief for eye irritation or inflammation, but they are not typically used to treat diplopia. Diplopia in MS is more related to neuromuscular dysfunction or nerve damage, rather than acute inflammation or irritation of the eye. Therefore, while a cool compress may offer temporary relief for other symptoms, it is not a targeted solution for double vision in this context.

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The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client was given a medical prescription for tizanidine. What information would the nurse provide regarding this medication? Tizanidine is

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for the client experiencing Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). It is most important for the nurse to monitor the client for which complication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) who is complaining of diplopia. Which intervention would be appropriate for the client with this problem?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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