The nurse is admitting a client who is on a ventilator. The client has a medical diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which infection control guideline is of greatest importance?

A. Recent intake of sildenafil:
While there is a potential drug interaction between atenolol (a beta-blocker) and sildenafil (a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction), this alone would not necessarily be an indication to hold atenolol. Sildenafil can cause hypotension, which might be exacerbated by atenolol, especially in older adults or those with cardiovascular issues. However, this interaction usually requires monitoring rather than immediate discontinuation of atenolol, unless the client is symptomatic (e.g., feeling faint, dizziness). If symptoms of hypotension occur after taking both medications, the nurse would assess the client's condition but would not automatically hold atenolol based solely on this information.

B. Heart rate 52 and blood pressure 90/56: The most concerning finding in a client receiving atenolol (a beta-blocker) for angina is a heart rate of 52 beats per minute (bradycardia) and a blood pressure of 90/56 mmHg (hypotension). Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, work by reducing the heart rate and lowering blood pressure. A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is below the typical threshold of 60 beats per minute and indicates bradycardia, which could worsen due to the medication's effects. Additionally, hypotension (blood pressure 90/56) can be dangerous, especially when combined with bradycardia. Both of these findings suggest that the client may be experiencing excessive beta-blockade, which could lead to severe complications such as cardiogenic shock or arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should hold the medication and contact the provider for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan.

C. Restlessness and mild confusion:
Restlessness and mild confusion could indicate several possible issues, such as hypoxia, electrolyte imbalances, or medication side effects. While beta-blockers can cause side effects like fatigue or depression, restlessness and confusion are not common acute reactions to atenolol. However, if these symptoms are due to hypotension or bradycardia from the atenolol, then holding the medication and notifying the provider may be warranted. Nonetheless, these symptoms alone are not a clear cause to immediately hold atenolol without further assessment.

D. Positional vertigo and wheezing:
Positional vertigo can occur due to a variety of causes, including inner ear issues, hypotension, or even medication side effects. Wheezing, however, raises concerns about potential bronchospasm, which is a known side effect of non-cardioselective beta-blockers. Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker, meaning it is less likely to cause bronchospasm compared to non-cardioselective agents like propranolol. While wheezing could indicate a reaction to the medication, it is not a primary concern with atenolol, unless the client has a history of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). If wheezing occurs, the nurse should still monitor the client but would not necessarily hold atenolol immediately unless the symptoms are severe.

A. Dextromethorphan 10 mg PO q 4 hr: Dextromethorphan is a cough suppressant, and while it may be useful for controlling a dry, non-productive cough, it is not appropriate for ineffective airway clearance in pneumonia. In fact, suppressing the cough in pneumonia could prevent the patient from clearing mucus from the airways, exacerbating the problem. It is more appropriate for a client who has a dry cough without significant mucus production.

B. Cromolyn MDI 2 puffs daily: Cromolyn is a mast cell stabilizer used for the prevention of asthma and allergy symptoms, and it is not typically used for treating pneumonia or ineffective airway clearance. It works by preventing the release of inflammatory mediators in response to allergens, but it does not address the issue of clearing mucus in the airways during a bacterial infection like pneumonia.

C. Guaifenesin 200 mg PO q 4 hr: Guaifenesin is an expectorant that helps loosen and thin mucus in the airways, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear secretions. This is the most appropriate medication for addressing ineffective airway clearance in a client with pneumonia, as the goal is to facilitate the removal of mucus and improve respiratory function. Guaifenesin does not suppress the cough reflex but instead promotes productive coughing, which is essential for clearing the airways during a respiratory infection like pneumonia.

D. Methylprednisolone 30 mg IV BID: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and control severe allergic or inflammatory conditions. While corticosteroids may be used in certain cases of pneumonia (e.g., in cases of significant inflammation or an underlying condition like COPD), they are not the first-line treatment for ineffective airway clearance. The priority in this case is to promote mucus clearance, which is better addressed by guaifenesin.