The nurse is caring for a client in the coronary care unit and the monitor depicts the rhythm shown below. What is the nurse’s interpretation of this rhythm?

Second degree AV block- Mobitz II
Sinus bradycardia with first degree AV block
Second degree AV block- Mobitz I
Third degree heart block
The Correct Answer is C
A. Mobitz II is a type of second-degree AV block characterized by constant PR intervals and sudden dropped QRS complexes (i.e., the PR interval does not lengthen progressively). This is a more serious block because the dropped beats are unpredictable and could lead to complete block.
B. Sinus bradycardia is a slower-than-normal heart rate (usually less than 60 beats per minute) that originates from the sinus node. First-degree AV block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, but unlike second-degree block, there are no dropped QRS complexes.
C. Mobitz I (Wenckebach) is a second-degree AV block where the PR interval gradually lengthens with each successive beat until a QRS complex is dropped. After the dropped beat, the cycle repeats. This is a relatively benign block and often resolves without intervention, though it requires monitoring.
D. Third-degree heart block (also known as complete heart block) occurs when there is no communication between the atria and ventricles. The atria and ventricles beat independently of each other. There are no relationship between the P waves and QRS complexes, and the ventricular rate is typically slower than the atrial rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute is considered tachycardia (a heart rate above 100 bpm). This is not an indicator of improvement in heart failure, as it suggests the heart is working harder than usual. Chronic heart failure can lead to compensatory mechanisms such as tachycardia, but it’s typically not a sign of improvement.
B. Peripheral edema (swelling in the legs, ankles, or feet) is a common symptom of heart failure, resulting from fluid buildup due to poor cardiac output. A rating of +3 edema indicates moderate to severe swelling, which suggests fluid retention and poor circulation. This is a sign of worsening or poorly controlled heart failure, not improvement.
C. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated, as the normal resting respiratory rate for adults is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A higher respiratory rate can be a sign of respiratory distress or compensatory breathing due to insufficient oxygenation or fluid buildup in the lungs (pulmonary edema), which are both symptoms of heart failure exacerbation.
D. Being alert and oriented X 3 means the client is aware of time, place, and person, indicating no signs of confusion or cognitive impairment. In the context of chronic heart failure, mental status changes (like confusion or disorientation) can occur due to decreased cerebral perfusion, low oxygen levels, or medications (such as diuretics or digitalis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hypermagnesemia can cause bradycardia and hypotension, but it is less commonly associated with PVCs. This does not align with the lab results provided.
B. Hypocalcemia can cause arrhythmias, but it is not the most likely cause of PVCs in this case, considering other findings.
C. Hypokalemia (low potassium) is a known cause of PVCs. The patient's potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L, which is significantly low and most likely contributing to the PVCs.
D. Although hyperglycemia can affect cardiac function, it is less commonly linked to PVCs compared to electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia.
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