Review the lab results in the chart tab
LAB
LAB |
Result |
Normal Range |
Potassium |
2.8 mEq/L |
3.5-5.3mEq/L |
Sodium |
133 mEq/L |
135-145 mEqL |
Chloride |
90 mEq/L |
97-107 mEqL |
Glucose |
200 mg/dL |
70mg/dL to 110mg/dL |
Magnesium |
2.5 mg/dL |
1.6-2.2 mg/dL |
Calcium |
8.0 mg/dL |
8.2-10.2 mg/dL: |
A client admitted to the Emergency Department (ED) and the cardiac monitor shows multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVC's). Initial laboratory findings are as follows. The nurse recognizes that the client's PVC's are most likely caused by:
hypermagnesemia.
hypocalcemia.
hypokalemia,
hyperglycemia
The Correct Answer is C
A. Hypermagnesemia can cause bradycardia and hypotension, but it is less commonly associated with PVCs. This does not align with the lab results provided.
B. Hypocalcemia can cause arrhythmias, but it is not the most likely cause of PVCs in this case, considering other findings.
C. Hypokalemia (low potassium) is a known cause of PVCs. The patient's potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L, which is significantly low and most likely contributing to the PVCs.
D. Although hyperglycemia can affect cardiac function, it is less commonly linked to PVCs compared to electrolyte imbalances, such as hypokalemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to manage conditions like atrial fibrillation or hypertension by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. However, it may not be the most appropriate drug in the acute setting for heart failure with dyspnea.
B. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps reduce preload and afterload, which can be beneficial in heart failure. However, it primarily works by reducing the workload on the heart and may help with fluid overload but may not directly address anxiety.
C. Verapamil is another calcium channel blocker that slows the heart rate and reduces the heart's workload. While it may be useful for controlling tachyarrhythmias, it is not the best option for managing acute heart failure with severe dyspnea and anxiety.
D. Morphine is an opioid that can be used in acute heart failure to reduce both anxiety and respiratory distress. It works by reducing the sympathetic nervous system response, decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, and providing a sense of calm, which reduces anxiety. It also reduces preload by venodilation and helps manage severe dyspnea.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Cryoprecipitate is indicated for low fibrinogen or clotting factor issues, but the client’s primary issue
here is anemia and thrombocytopenia.
B. FFP is used to replace clotting factors. While it could be considered in certain situations, in this case, the primary concern is the severe anemia and thrombocytopenia.
C. This is the most appropriate choice, as the patient has low hemoglobin (anemia) and a very low platelet count, both of which require packed red blood cells and platelets.
D. This combination is typically used for clotting factor issues, not anemia and thrombocytopenia.
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