The nurse is caring for a client with acute heart failure who is severely dyspneic and extremely anxious. The nurse anticipates that increased cardiac output and decreased anxiety may be promoted by the IV administration of:

diltiazem.

nitroglycerine.

verapamil.

morphine.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to manage conditions like atrial fibrillation or hypertension by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. However, it may not be the most appropriate drug in the acute setting for heart failure with dyspnea.
B.   Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps reduce preload and afterload, which can be beneficial in heart failure. However, it primarily works by reducing the workload on the heart and may help with fluid overload but may not directly address anxiety.
C.   Verapamil is another calcium channel blocker that slows the heart rate and reduces the heart's workload. While it may be useful for controlling tachyarrhythmias, it is not the best option for managing acute heart failure with severe dyspnea and anxiety.
D.   Morphine is an opioid that can be used in acute heart failure to reduce both anxiety and respiratory distress. It works by reducing the sympathetic nervous system response, decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, and providing a sense of calm, which reduces anxiety. It also reduces preload by venodilation and helps manage severe dyspnea.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Cryoprecipitate is indicated for low fibrinogen or clotting factor issues, but the client’s primary issue
here is anemia and thrombocytopenia.
B. FFP is used to replace clotting factors. While it could be considered in certain situations, in this case, the primary concern is the severe anemia and thrombocytopenia.
C. This is the most appropriate choice, as the patient has low hemoglobin (anemia) and a very low platelet count, both of which require packed red blood cells and platelets.
D. This combination is typically used for clotting factor issues, not anemia and thrombocytopenia.

Correct Answer is ["13.8"]

Explanation

The patient weighs 121 lbs, which is approximately 55 kg (121 ÷ 2.2).

The prescribed dose is 1 mg/kg, so the patient requires 55 mg of furosemide. The medication is supplied at a concentration of 40 mg per 10 mL.

To find out how many mL of furosemide to administer, set up a proportion: 40 mg is to 10 mL as 55 mg is to X mL.

Therefore, the nurse should administer 13.8 mL of furosemide, rounding to the nearest tenth.

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			Male: 14- 17.3 g/dL
Hematocrit	26%	24%	Female: 36%-48% Male: 42%-52%
Platelets	35,000mm3	20,000mm3	150,000- 450,000mm3
RBC	4.5 mm3	3mm3	Female: 4.01-5.51 million/mm3 Male: 4.51-

The nurse is caring for a client with acute heart failure who is severely dyspneic and extremely anxious. The nurse anticipates that increased cardiac output and decreased anxiety may be promoted by the IV administration of:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient is ordered 1 mg/kg of furosemide IV push. The patient weights 121 Ibs. The medication is supplied 40 mg/10 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (round to the nearest tenth)

Correct Answer is ["13.8"]

Explanation

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