Lab results
|
LAB |
Result Day 1 |
Result Day 2 |
Normal Range |
|
Hemoglobin |
7.1g/dL |
6.2g/dL |
Female: 11.7-15.5 g/dL. |
|
Male: 14- 17.3 g/dL |
|||
|
Hematocrit |
26% |
24% |
Female: 36%-48% Male: 42%-52% |
|
Platelets |
35,000mm3 |
20,000mm3 |
150,000- 450,000mm3 |
|
RBC |
4.5 mm3 |
3mm3 |
Female: 4.01-5.51 million/mm3 Male: 4.51- |
The nurse is caring for a client, the lab results are listed in the table. The nurse would anticipate the administration of which blood product(s) for this client?
Cryoprecipitate and red blood cells
Platelets and fresh frozen plasma
Packed red blood cells and platelets
Fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate
The Correct Answer is C
A. Cryoprecipitate is indicated for low fibrinogen or clotting factor issues, but the client’s primary issue
here is anemia and thrombocytopenia.
B. FFP is used to replace clotting factors. While it could be considered in certain situations, in this case, the primary concern is the severe anemia and thrombocytopenia.
C. This is the most appropriate choice, as the patient has low hemoglobin (anemia) and a very low platelet count, both of which require packed red blood cells and platelets.
D. This combination is typically used for clotting factor issues, not anemia and thrombocytopenia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While privacy may be important for a patient who is emotionally distressed, the priority is addressing
the client’s emotional state, not the physical environment.
B. This might be helpful later, but the priority is to explore the patient's feelings and concerns regarding their condition first. Immediate emotional support is more important at this stage.
C. When a patient expresses feelings of hopelessness, as in this case, the nurse must assess for potential suicidal ideation. This is a priority to ensure patient safety and to provide necessary psychological support or intervention.
D. While reassurance is important, providing false or unrealistic expectations can lead to further disappointment. The nurse should focus on addressing emotional distress and offering realistic support rather than giving definitive assurances.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to manage conditions like atrial fibrillation or hypertension by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. However, it may not be the most appropriate drug in the acute setting for heart failure with dyspnea.
B. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps reduce preload and afterload, which can be beneficial in heart failure. However, it primarily works by reducing the workload on the heart and may help with fluid overload but may not directly address anxiety.
C. Verapamil is another calcium channel blocker that slows the heart rate and reduces the heart's workload. While it may be useful for controlling tachyarrhythmias, it is not the best option for managing acute heart failure with severe dyspnea and anxiety.
D. Morphine is an opioid that can be used in acute heart failure to reduce both anxiety and respiratory distress. It works by reducing the sympathetic nervous system response, decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, and providing a sense of calm, which reduces anxiety. It also reduces preload by venodilation and helps manage severe dyspnea.
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