The nurse is caring for a client who develops signs and symptoms of septic shock following a urinary tract infection one week ago. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol to be initiated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

Monitor blood glucose level.

Maintain strict intake and output.

Assess warmth of extremities.

Keep head of bed raised 45 degrees.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Rationale

A. Monitoring blood glucose levels is important, especially in critically ill patients, as hyperglycemia can worsen outcomes in septic shock. However, it is not the most critical intervention in the immediate management of septic shock.

B. Monitoring intake and output (I/O) is essential for assessing fluid balance, which is crucial in managing septic shock. Maintaining a strict I/O helps in determining fluid resuscitation needs and evaluating response to treatment. This intervention is important but may not be the most critical initially.

C. Assessing warmth of extremities is important as it helps in evaluating peripheral perfusion, which can be compromised in septic shock. Cold extremities can indicate poor tissue perfusion and may prompt the need for interventions such as fluid resuscitation.

D. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees is a specific intervention aimed at improving oxygenation and respiratory function, particularly in patients who may be mechanically ventilated or at risk of respiratory compromise. While this is an important intervention, it is not directly related to managing septic shock itself.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale

A. While it is important background information, it is not directly relevant to the acute change in the client's condition (increasing confusion and agitation). Therefore, this should not be provided first in the SBAR communication.

B. Knowing the client's current medications is important for understanding any potential causes or exacerbating factors related to the sudden onset of confusion and agitation. However, this is also background information and does not immediately address the acute change in the client's condition.

C. This is the most critical piece of information to provide first in the SBAR communication. Sudden onset of increasing confusion and agitation can indicate various urgent issues such as delirium, infection, metabolic disturbances, or neurological complications. This requires immediate attention and intervention from the healthcare provider.

D. While knowing the client's healthcare power of attorney is important for ensuring appropriate decision-making if needed, it is not urgent information in the context of reporting a sudden change in the client's condition. This can be discussed later in the SBAR communication or as part of the background information if relevant to the client's care.

A. Encourage the client to obtain a prescription for a benzodiazepine antagonist. B. Instruct the client that it is important to reduce the dose of the medication gradually. C. Discuss with the client that there may be a need for additional sleep if the feeling of fatigue is present the next day. D. Advise the client to stop taking the medication immediately.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale

A. Benzodiazepine antagonists, such as flumazenil, are used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of overdose or excessive sedation. However, in the context of using temazepam for insomnia, this is not a standard approach.

B. Benzodiazepines like temazepam should not be stopped abruptly, especially if they have been taken regularly. Abrupt cessation can lead to withdrawal symptoms, including rebound insomnia, anxiety, agitation, and potentially seizures in severe cases.

C. This option addresses the symptom of feeling "hungover" or fatigued the next day after taking temazepam. It acknowledges that residual sedation or drowsiness can occur with temazepam use. The nurse can educate the client about the potential for these side effects and suggest allowing for adequate time for sleep to alleviate these symptoms.

D. Stopping temazepam abruptly is not recommended because it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potentially worsen insomnia. This option does not address the need for tapering off the medication or managing the symptoms effectively.

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The nurse is caring for a client who develops signs and symptoms of septic shock following a urinary tract infection one week ago. The healthcare provider prescribes a sepsis protocol to be initiated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client taking temazepam informs the nurse of plans to quit taking the medication due to feelings of "hungover" the next day. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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