The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a transesophageal echocardiogram.
What nursing intervention is a priority after the procedure?
Monitor the puncture site and assess the affected extremity.
Observe for bloody urine and stools.
Keep the client turned to the right side and watch for bleeding from the site.
Keep the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees and keep NPO until return of the gag reflex.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Transesophageal echocardiography involves the insertion of an ultrasound probe through the esophagus rather than an arterial or venous puncture in the extremities. Monitoring a puncture site and assessing distal pulses are interventions typically reserved for cardiac catheterization or arterial procedures. Because this procedure is endoscopic in nature, there is no peripheral vascular access site created that would require frequent neurovascular checks or monitoring for hematoma formation in the limbs.
Choice B rationale
Assessing for hematuria or melena is not a priority following an esophageal procedure. While internal trauma is a rare risk, these symptoms are more indicative of systemic bleeding or gastrointestinal issues unrelated to the ultrasound probe. The nurse should focus on local complications such as esophageal perforation or aspiration rather than systemic hemorrhage in the urine or stool. Standard laboratory values for hemoglobin are 12 to 16 g/dL for women and 14 to 18 g/dL for men.
Choice C rationale
Positioning the client on the right side to watch for site bleeding is an intervention specific to a liver biopsy, where the weight of the body helps provide pressure to the puncture site. For a client post transesophageal echocardiography, the primary concern is the return of protective airway reflexes. Positioning should facilitate drainage of secretions and prevent aspiration rather than focusing on a non-existent external surgical site or localized pressure on the liver.
Choice D rationale
During this procedure, the throat is numbed with a topical anesthetic to facilitate probe insertion. This suppresses the gag reflex, significantly increasing the risk of aspiration if oral intake occurs too soon. Keeping the head of the bed at 45 degrees promotes lung expansion and prevents secretions from entering the trachea. The nurse must verify the return of the gag reflex by using a tongue blade before allowing any fluids or food.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sinus bradycardia involves a heart rate below 60 beats per minute, which is typically contrary to the presentation of atrial fibrillation. In atrial fibrillation, the multiple rapid impulses from the atria usually lead to a rapid ventricular response, causing tachycardia rather than bradycardia. While medications like beta blockers or calcium channel blockers can cause slow rates, the primary pathological complication of the arrhythmia itself is not bradycardia but rather hemodynamic instability or thromboembolic events.
Choice B rationale
Peripheral vascular disease is a chronic condition characterized by the narrowing of arteries outside the heart and brain, often due to atherosclerosis. While both atrial fibrillation and peripheral vascular disease share common risk factors like hypertension or age, atrial fibrillation does not directly cause peripheral vascular disease. The concern in atrial fibrillation is the formation of acute arterial emboli that can travel to the limbs, causing acute ischemia, which is distinct from the chronic progression of systemic atherosclerosis.
Choice C rationale
Atrial fibrillation causes ineffective atrial contraction, leading to blood stasis within the atria, especially the left atrial appendage. This stasis facilitates the formation of thrombi. If a clot forms in the right atrium and dislodges, it travels through the right ventricle into the pulmonary circulation, resulting in a pulmonary embolism. Conversely, left-sided clots lead to systemic strokes. Monitoring for sudden shortness of breath or chest pain is essential due to this high thromboembolic risk.
Choice D rationale
Hypertension is frequently a precursor or a comorbid condition that contributes to the development of atrial fibrillation by causing structural remodeling of the heart. However, atrial fibrillation itself does not cause hypertension. In many cases, the loss of atrial kick and rapid heart rate associated with atrial fibrillation can actually lead to a decrease in cardiac output, which might manifest as hypotension or a drop in blood pressure rather than an elevation in pressure.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Orthopnea refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is typically a hallmark sign of chronic heart failure or pulmonary edema. While an acute myocardial infarction can lead to acute heart failure, orthopnea is not considered a classic or universal presenting symptom of the initial ischemic event itself. Assessment focuses on signs of sympathetic nervous system activation and direct cardiac distress rather than positional breathing difficulties.
Choice B rationale
Headaches are not a characteristic clinical manifestation of an acute myocardial infarction. While a patient might experience a headache due to high blood pressure or as a side effect of nitroglycerin administration, it does not stem from the underlying myocardial ischemia or necrosis. The primary pain associated with an MI is located in the chest, jaw, or arms, reflecting the dermatomal distribution of cardiac sensory nerves during an oxygen mismatch.
Choice C rationale
Diaphoresis is a common finding during an acute myocardial infarction due to the massive activation of the sympathetic nervous system. When cardiac output drops or pain becomes intense, the body initiates a fight or flight response, leading to profuse sweating. This is often described as a cold and clammy sensation. This compensatory mechanism is a key diagnostic indicator that helps clinicians distinguish significant cardiac events from less severe causes of chest pain.
Choice D rationale
Tachycardia occurs as the heart attempts to compensate for reduced stroke volume and myocardial injury. The sympathetic nervous system releases catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which increase the heart rate to maintain systemic perfusion. During an acute MI, the body senses a decrease in effective circulating volume or oxygen delivery, triggering this rapid heart rate. Monitoring for tachycardia is essential as it also increases myocardial oxygen demand, potentially worsening the underlying ischemia.
Choice E rationale
Nausea and vomiting are frequent manifestations of an acute myocardial infarction, particularly those involving the inferior wall of the heart. This occurs due to a vasovagal reflex or the proximity of the diaphragmatic surface of the heart to the gastrointestinal tract. Pain and systemic stress also slow gastric motility, contributing to gastrointestinal upset. Recognizing nausea as a potential cardiac symptom is vital, especially in populations like women or the elderly.
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