The nurse is caring for a client with a history of coronary artery disease who reports waking up with a sudden onset of vise-like chest pressure.

The client reports that the pain decreases at rest but continues to feel a constant mid-chest pressure. What intervention should the nurse perform in the immediate management of the client?

What intervention should the nurse perform in the immediate management of the client?

Determine the presence of ST-elevations or non-ST-elevations on the electrocardiogram

Initiate dim lighting, lower alarm volumes, and control traffic in and out of the room area

Verify troponin level assessments are scheduled every 3-6 hours for a series of three

Apply oxygen via nasal cannula and titrate to keep oxygen saturation above 93%

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale
Determining the presence of ST-elevations or non-ST-elevations on the electrocardiogram is an important step in diagnosing a myocardial infarction. However, this is typically performed by a healthcare provider or a trained technician, not a nurse.
Choice B rationale
While creating a calm and quiet environment can be beneficial for a client experiencing chest pain, it is not the immediate intervention that should be performed. The client’s symptoms suggest a possible cardiac event, which requires immediate medical intervention.
Choice C rationale
Verifying that troponin level assessments are scheduled every 3-6 hours for a series of three is important for diagnosing myocardial infarction. However, this is not the immediate intervention that should be performed. The client’s symptoms suggest a possible cardiac event, which requires immediate medical intervention.
Choice D rationale
Applying oxygen via nasal cannula and titrating to keep oxygen saturation above 93% is the correct intervention. This action helps to increase the oxygen supply to the myocardium, potentially decreasing the extent of myocardial damage and relieving chest pain.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Chills and fever are not typically associated with preeclampsia. They are more commonly seen in infections.
Choice B rationale
Lack of appetite is a non-specific symptom and can be associated with many conditions, but it is not a key indicator of preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Swollen hands can be a symptom of preeclampsia. This condition can cause sudden weight gain and swelling (edema), particularly in your face and hands.

Choice D rationale
Headaches are a common symptom of preeclampsia. They are often severe and may be accompanied by changes in vision.
Choice E rationale
Blurred vision is a symptom of preeclampsia. Other vision changes, such as sensitivity to light or temporary loss of vision, can also occur.
Choice F rationale
Frequent urination is not typically associated with preeclampsia. It is a common symptom in early and late pregnancy due to the growing uterus pressing on the bladder.

A. Client implements measures to prevent injury. B. Client describes ways to control disease. C. Client demonstrates improved body image. D. Client experiences a normal fluid balance.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Given the client’s risk factors of poor wound healing, decreased bone density, and increased capillary fragility, the most appropriate outcome statement to include in the plan of care is that the client implements measures to prevent injury. This includes avoiding falls, using caution with sharp objects to prevent cuts, and taking steps to protect the bones.
Choice B rationale
While it is important for the client to understand their disease and ways to control it, this is not the most appropriate outcome statement given the client’s specific risk factors.
Choice C rationale
Improving body image may be a relevant goal for some clients with Cushing’s syndrome, but it is not the most appropriate outcome statement given the client’s specific risk factors.
Choice D rationale
Experiencing a normal fluid balance may be a relevant goal for some clients with Cushing’s syndrome, but it is not the most appropriate outcome statement given the client’s specific risk factors.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is educating a first-time pregnant woman about preeclampsia. Which symptoms are indicators of preeclampsia and should be reported to the healthcare provider? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]

Explanation

The nurse is developing the plan of care for a client diagnosed with Cushing’s syndrome and identifies that the client’s risk factors include poor wound healing, decreased bone density, and increased capillary fragility. Which outcome statement should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The patient provides three positive responses to items on the CAGE (Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener) query. What interpretation should the nurse provide to the patient?

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client’s right hand and fingers spasm when taking the blood pressure using the same arm. After confirming the presence of the spasms, which action should the nurse take?

The nurse is educating a patient who was admitted with a blood glucose level of 580 mg/dL on how to prevent complications related to diabetes mellitus. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate that they have understood the teaching?

The nurse is providing postoperative care for an adolescent who had a left leg amputation due to osteosarcoma and is experiencing phantom limb pain. What non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse provide?

When providing nursing care for a client after a gastric endoscopy, which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care for commonly occurring problems?

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The nurse is preparing a client with breast cancer for BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic testing. Which pathophysiological process should the nurse use to support client teaching?