The nurse is caring for a client with an upper respiratory disorder. The client states they have a hacky, non-productive cough, which wakens them during the night. Which over-the-counter medication would the nurse suggest to diminish the cough during the night?
Dextromethorphan
Pseudoephedrine
Diphenhydramine
Fluticasone
The Correct Answer is A
A. Dextromethorphan: Dextromethorphan is an antitussive commonly used to suppress non-productive coughs. It acts on the cough center in the medulla to reduce the frequency and intensity of coughing, making it ideal for nighttime relief.
B. Pseudoephedrine: Pseudoephedrine is a decongestant that reduces nasal congestion by vasoconstriction. It does not suppress cough and can actually cause insomnia due to its stimulant effects, making it inappropriate for nighttime use.
C. Diphenhydramine: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that may have mild cough suppressant properties and cause sedation. Its primary action is to block histamine receptors, which is more useful for allergic reactions and related symptoms like runny nose or itching. It's not a direct cough suppressant.
D. Fluticasone: Fluticasone is a corticosteroid typically used as a nasal spray for allergic rhinitis. It is not effective for acute cough relief and has no role in suppressing a dry, nighttime cough.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Right extremity comparable in size to left: Reduction in swelling indicates improved venous return and resolution of the thrombus. Symmetry between extremities suggests successful clot dissolution and reduced obstruction in the affected vein.
B. No bleeding or bruising noted: While this is a desirable side effect outcome, it is not a direct measure of thrombolytic effectiveness. Thrombolytics carry bleeding risk, but the absence of bruising doesn’t confirm clot resolution.
C. Right extremity pink: A pink, well-perfused extremity suggests adequate blood flow, which reflects successful reperfusion. This indicates improved circulation after clot breakdown and is a positive therapeutic result.
D. Client denies pain: Pain is a hallmark symptom of DVT due to inflammation and obstruction. Decreased or absent pain after thrombolytic therapy reflects clinical improvement and reduced clot burden.
E. Pedal pulse thready: A thready pulse may indicate decreased perfusion and is not a reassuring finding. Effective thrombolytic therapy should lead to strong, palpable pulses if circulation has improved.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administer the medications and then notify the health care provider: Administering digoxin with a heart rate below 60 bpm can worsen bradycardia and lead to complications like heart block. The drug should be withheld first.
B. Administer atropine to speed the heart rate and then administer the digoxin: Atropine is not given prophylactically without a provider's order. It is used in emergency settings for symptomatic bradycardia, not as a pre-treatment for digoxin.
C. Administer the medication and inform the charge nurse about the rate: This does not follow safe medication guidelines. Administering digoxin without addressing the low heart rate may lead to serious adverse effects.
D. Withhold the medication and notify the health care provider of the heart rate: This is the safest and most appropriate action. Digoxin should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60 bpm, and the provider must be informed for further evaluation.
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