The nurse is caring for a client with an upper respiratory disorder. The client states they have a hacky, non-productive cough, which wakens them during the night. Which over-the-counter medication would the nurse suggest to diminish the cough during the night?

Dextromethorphan

Pseudoephedrine

Diphenhydramine

Fluticasone

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Dextromethorphan: Dextromethorphan is an antitussive commonly used to suppress non-productive coughs. It acts on the cough center in the medulla to reduce the frequency and intensity of coughing, making it ideal for nighttime relief.
B. Pseudoephedrine: Pseudoephedrine is a decongestant that reduces nasal congestion by vasoconstriction. It does not suppress cough and can actually cause insomnia due to its stimulant effects, making it inappropriate for nighttime use.
C. Diphenhydramine: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that may have mild cough suppressant properties and cause sedation. Its primary action is to block histamine receptors, which is more useful for allergic reactions and related symptoms like runny nose or itching. It's not a direct cough suppressant.
D. Fluticasone: Fluticasone is a corticosteroid typically used as a nasal spray for allergic rhinitis. It is not effective for acute cough relief and has no role in suppressing a dry, nighttime cough.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "Confirmation is achieved by ruling out other diseases that manifest similar symptoms.": Psychobiologic diagnoses are often made through exclusion since many medical and psychiatric conditions present with overlapping symptoms. This explanation is medically accurate and helps the client understand the diagnostic process.
B. "Diagnosis takes time to consult the specialist and to get those reports.": While this may be true, it lacks specific detail about the diagnostic process. It may come across as vague or dismissive rather than informative and supportive during a stressful time.
C. "We should have the conclusion of the tests soon. Hang in there.": This is a supportive statement but provides no meaningful information. It does not validate the client’s frustration or explain the nature of psychobiologic diagnosis.
D. "Psychotherapy will provide the best data to make a diagnosis.": Psychotherapy is primarily used for treatment, not diagnosis. While it may help reveal symptoms, the diagnostic process relies more on clinical assessment and the exclusion of medical conditions.

A. Limited gas exchange B. Multiple organ failure C. Endotoxins in the system D. Brain death

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Limited gas exchange: Impaired gas exchange occurs in earlier stages of shock due to poor perfusion and fluid accumulation, especially in the lungs. While serious, it is typically one component and not the final pathway leading to death.
B. Multiple organ failure: Irreversible shock leads to widespread cellular death and systemic hypoperfusion, causing failure of multiple organ systems. Once multiple organs shut down, the body can no longer sustain life due to failure of the body's compensatory mechanisms, and recovery is no longer possible.
C. Endotoxins in the system: Endotoxins may be present in septic shock and can contribute to inflammation and organ damage. However, their presence alone does not define the terminal stage of shock without resulting in systemic organ failure.
D. Brain death: Brain death may result from prolonged hypoxia or trauma, but it is not the defining feature of irreversible shock. In this stage, death results from the collapse of multiple organ systems rather than isolated neurological failure.

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The nurse is caring for a client with an upper respiratory disorder. The client states they have a hacky, non-productive cough, which wakens them during the night. Which over-the-counter medication would the nurse suggest to diminish the cough during the night?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client in the irreversible stage of shock. The nurse is explaining to the client's family the poor prognosis. Which would the nurse be most accurate to explain as the rationale for imminent death?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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