The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client with a blood pressure of 146/88 mm Hg. The client states that lifestyle changes have not been effective in lowering blood pressure. Which medication classification does the nurse anticipate first?
Thiazide diuretic
ACE inhibitors
Calcium channel blocker
Beta-blocker
The Correct Answer is A
A. Thiazide diuretic: Thiazide diuretics are often the first-line pharmacologic treatment for stage 1 hypertension when lifestyle changes alone are ineffective. They reduce blood volume and peripheral resistance, effectively lowering blood pressure.
B. ACE inhibitors: ACE inhibitors are commonly used, especially in clients with diabetes or heart failure, but they are generally considered after thiazide diuretics unless there is a compelling comorbidity.
C. Calcium channel blocker: These are also used to manage hypertension, particularly in older adults or those with certain cardiovascular risks, but not typically as the first step without other indications.
D. Beta-blocker: Beta-blockers are not usually first-line for uncomplicated hypertension. They are more appropriate when there are concurrent conditions like heart failure, arrhythmias, or post-MI care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Eroded teeth enamel: Frequent vomiting in bulimia nervosa exposes teeth to stomach acid, leading to enamel erosion. This is a classic physical sign associated with purging behavior.
B. Younger onset than anorexia nervosa: Bulimia nervosa typically has a later onset than anorexia nervosa, often emerging in late adolescence or early adulthood. This statement is inaccurate for distinguishing between the two disorders.
C. Denial of abnormal eating habits: Clients with bulimia nervosa are often aware of their disordered eating behaviors and may express guilt or shame. Denial is more characteristic of anorexia nervosa.
D. Overweight or normal weight: Unlike individuals with anorexia, those with bulimia usually maintain a normal or slightly above-average weight, due to cycles of binge eating and purging rather than extreme caloric restriction.
E. Admits to purging and binging: Admission of binging and purging episodes is a key behavioral characteristic of bulimia nervosa. Clients may describe eating large amounts of food followed by self-induced vomiting or use of laxatives.
F. Appears thin but feels fat: This perception is more commonly associated with anorexia nervosa, where body image distortion is profound despite extreme thinness. Bulimia clients often have less severe weight loss.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Bladder trauma: Bladder injuries are more commonly associated with lower abdominal or pelvic trauma, especially from a direct blow or pelvic fracture, not chest compression.
B. A pleural effusion: Pleural effusion refers to fluid accumulation in the pleural space, usually from infection, malignancy, or inflammation. It does not occur suddenly from blunt chest trauma.
C. Fractured pelvis: A pelvic fracture is typically caused by impact to the lower body or hip area, not by forceful chest compression against a steering wheel.
D. Cardiac tamponade: Blunt chest trauma can lead to bleeding into the pericardial sac, causing cardiac tamponade. This is a life-threatening condition where fluid compresses the heart, impairing its ability to pump effectively. It is a likely concern in cases of severe chest impact.
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