The nurse is caring for a patient on a telemetry unit who has a regular heart rhythm and rate of 60 beats/min; a P wave precedes each QRS complex, and the PR interval is 0.20 seconds. Additional vital signs are: blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and temperature 98.8°F (37°C). All of these medications are available on the medication record. What action will the nurse take?
Continue to monitor.
Administer clonidine.
Administer atropine.
Administer digoxin.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
Continuing to monitor is the most appropriate action in this scenario. The patient has a regular heart rhythm and a heart rate of 60 beats per minute, which is within the normal range for sinus bradycardia. The PR interval is 0.20 seconds, which is at the upper limit of normal. The patient’s vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 118/68 mm Hg, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.8°F (37°C). There are no signs of hemodynamic instability or symptoms that would necessitate immediate intervention. Therefore, ongoing monitoring is sufficient to ensure the patient’s condition remains stable.
Choice B Reason:
Administering clonidine is not appropriate in this situation. Clonidine is an antihypertensive medication that can lower blood pressure and heart rate. Given that the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate are within normal ranges, administering clonidine could potentially cause hypotension and bradycardia, leading to adverse effects. Therefore, clonidine is not indicated for this patient.
Choice C Reason:
Administering atropine is not necessary for this patient. Atropine is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, where the heart rate is abnormally slow and causing symptoms such as dizziness, hypotension, or syncope. In this case, the patient’s heart rate is 60 beats per minute, which is within the normal range for sinus bradycardia, and there are no symptoms indicating the need for atropine. Therefore, atropine is not required.
Choice D Reason:
Administering digoxin is also not appropriate. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure and certain types of arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation. It can slow the heart rate and increase the force of cardiac contractions. In this scenario, the patient does not have any indications for digoxin therapy, such as heart failure or atrial fibrillation, and their heart rate is already within the normal range. Therefore, digoxin is not indicated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: A buffalo hump is a characteristic sign of Cushing’s syndrome. It refers to the accumulation of fat on the back of the neck and shoulders. This symptom occurs due to the excessive production of cortisol, which leads to abnormal fat distribution in the body.
Choice B reason: Moon face is another hallmark of Cushing’s syndrome. It describes the rounding and fullness of the face, which results from fat deposits. This symptom is also caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol.
Choice C reason: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is commonly associated with Cushing’s syndrome. Cortisol increases blood pressure by enhancing the sensitivity of blood vessels to catecholamines and by promoting sodium and water retention.
Choice D reason: Purple striations, or stretch marks, are often seen in individuals with Cushing’s syndrome. These marks typically appear on the abdomen, thighs, breasts, and arms. They result from the thinning of the skin and the breakdown of collagen due to elevated cortisol levels.
Choice E reason: Tremors are not typically associated with Cushing’s syndrome. While Cushing’s syndrome can cause a variety of symptoms, tremors are more commonly linked to other conditions such as hyperthyroidism or neurological disorders.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Telling his wife what the client needs is not the most effective discharge action. While it is important for the wife to understand the client’s needs, this approach is too passive and does not actively engage the client or his wife in the care process. Effective management of Parkinson’s disease requires active participation from both the client and the caregiver to ensure adherence to the care plan and to address any concerns or preferences they may have.
Choice B Reason:
Setting up visitations by a home health nurse can be beneficial, but it is not the most effective discharge action on its own. Home health nurses can provide valuable support and monitoring, but the success of the management plan also depends on the involvement and commitment of the client and his wife. Without their active participation, the care plan may not be fully effective.
Choice C Reason:
Involving the client and his wife in developing a plan of care is the most effective discharge action. This approach ensures that both the client and his wife are fully engaged in the care process, understand the management plan, and are more likely to adhere to it. Collaborative care planning allows for the consideration of the client’s and caregiver’s preferences, needs, and concerns, leading to a more personalized and effective care plan. This active involvement can also empower the client and his wife, improving their confidence in managing the disease.

Choice D Reason:
Writing up a detailed plan of care according to standards is important, but it is not the most effective discharge action if done in isolation. A standardized care plan may not address the unique needs and preferences of the client and his wife. Without their involvement in the development of the plan, there may be a lack of understanding or commitment to the care plan, reducing its effectiveness. Personalizing the care plan through active involvement of the client and his wife is crucial for successful management.
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