The nurse is caring for a patient on a telemetry unit who has a regular heart rhythm and rate of 60 beats/min; a P wave precedes each QRS complex, and the PR interval is 0.20 seconds. Additional vital signs are: blood pressure 118/68 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and temperature 98.8°F (37°C). All of these medications are available on the medication record. What action will the nurse take?

Continue to monitor.

Administer clonidine.

Administer atropine.

Administer digoxin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason:

Continuing to monitor is the most appropriate action in this scenario. The patient has a regular heart rhythm and a heart rate of 60 beats per minute, which is within the normal range for sinus bradycardia. The PR interval is 0.20 seconds, which is at the upper limit of normal. The patient’s vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 118/68 mm Hg, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a temperature of 98.8°F (37°C). There are no signs of hemodynamic instability or symptoms that would necessitate immediate intervention. Therefore, ongoing monitoring is sufficient to ensure the patient’s condition remains stable.

Choice B Reason:

Administering clonidine is not appropriate in this situation. Clonidine is an antihypertensive medication that can lower blood pressure and heart rate. Given that the patient’s blood pressure and heart rate are within normal ranges, administering clonidine could potentially cause hypotension and bradycardia, leading to adverse effects. Therefore, clonidine is not indicated for this patient.

Choice C Reason:

Administering atropine is not necessary for this patient. Atropine is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, where the heart rate is abnormally slow and causing symptoms such as dizziness, hypotension, or syncope. In this case, the patient’s heart rate is 60 beats per minute, which is within the normal range for sinus bradycardia, and there are no symptoms indicating the need for atropine. Therefore, atropine is not required.

Choice D Reason:

Administering digoxin is also not appropriate. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure and certain types of arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation. It can slow the heart rate and increase the force of cardiac contractions. In this scenario, the patient does not have any indications for digoxin therapy, such as heart failure or atrial fibrillation, and their heart rate is already within the normal range. Therefore, digoxin is not indicated.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

Choice A: Nephropathy

Diabetic nephropathy is a common microvascular complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by damage to the small blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to progressive kidney disease. The condition is often identified by the presence of protein in the urine (proteinuria) and can progress to end-stage renal disease if not managed properly. The primary mechanism involves hyperglycemia-induced damage to the glomeruli, the filtering units of the kidneys. This damage results in increased permeability and eventual scarring, impairing kidney function. Effective management of blood glucose levels and blood pressure is crucial in preventing or slowing the progression of diabetic nephropathy.

Choice B: Neuropathy

Diabetic neuropathy refers to nerve damage caused by chronic high blood sugar levels. It is another significant microvascular complication of diabetes. This condition can affect various types of nerves, including sensory, motor, and autonomic nerves. Symptoms may include pain, tingling, numbness, and loss of sensation, particularly in the extremities. Diabetic neuropathy can lead to severe complications such as foot ulcers and infections, which may necessitate amputation. The pathophysiology involves hyperglycemia-induced oxidative stress and inflammation, leading to nerve damage. Tight glycemic control and regular monitoring are essential in managing diabetic neuropathy.

Choice E: Retinopathy

Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults with diabetes. This microvascular complication involves damage to the small blood vessels in the retina, the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye. There are two main types: non-proliferative and proliferative retinopathy. Non-proliferative retinopathy is characterized by microaneurysms, hemorrhages, and exudates, while proliferative retinopathy involves the growth of new, fragile blood vessels that can bleed and cause retinal detachment. The primary cause is prolonged hyperglycemia, which damages the retinal blood vessels. Regular eye examinations and good glycemic control are vital in preventing and managing diabetic retinopathy.

Choice C: Peripheral Vascular Disease

Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is not classified as a microvascular complication but rather a macrovascular one. It involves the narrowing or blockage of the blood vessels outside the heart and brain, primarily affecting the arteries in the legs. PVD is associated with atherosclerosis, where plaque builds up in the arterial walls, leading to reduced blood flow. Symptoms include leg pain, cramping, and ulcers. While PVD is a significant concern for individuals with diabetes, it is not considered a microvascular complication.

Choice D: Cerebral Vascular Disease

Cerebral vascular disease, which includes conditions such as stroke and transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), is also a macrovascular complication rather than a microvascular one. It involves the blood vessels supplying the brain and is primarily caused by atherosclerosis and hypertension. Diabetes increases the risk of cerebral vascular disease due to its association with other risk factors like high blood pressure and dyslipidemia. However, it is not classified as a microvascular complication.

A. You may bring some music to listen to for distraction. B. Do not take any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test. C. You will need to have someone to drive you home. D. Please do not have anything to eat or drink after midnight.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A: You May Bring Some Music to Listen to for Distraction

Bringing music for distraction is generally not a standard instruction given before an EEG. While listening to music might help some patients relax, it is not a critical part of the preparation for the test. The primary focus of EEG preparation is to ensure accurate readings of brain activity, which can be influenced by various factors such as medication and sleep.

Choice B: Do Not Take Any Sedatives 12 to 24 Hours Before the Test

Avoiding sedatives before an EEG is crucial because these medications can alter brain activity and affect the test results. Sedatives can suppress the electrical activity in the brain, leading to inaccurate readings. Therefore, it is essential for patients to avoid taking any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test to ensure the EEG captures the brain’s natural activity.

Choice C: You Will Need to Have Someone to Drive You Home

This instruction is typically given if the patient is expected to be sedated or if the test involves procedures that might impair their ability to drive. However, for a standard EEG, patients are usually not sedated, and there is no need for someone to drive them home. This instruction is more relevant for other types of medical procedures that involve sedation.

Choice D: Please Do Not Have Anything to Eat or Drink After Midnight

Fasting is not a standard requirement for an EEG. Patients are generally allowed to eat and drink before the test. However, they are often advised to avoid caffeine as it can affect brain activity. The instruction to avoid food and drink after midnight is more commonly associated with procedures that require anesthesia or sedation, not an EEG.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

For the patient with diabetes mellitus, which microvascular complication of the blood vessel structure may occur? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]

Explanation

A client with a history of seizures is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which instruction does the nurse give the client before the test?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with chronic hepatitis who is receiving the medication lactulose. Which of these laboratory results would indicate the medication is achieving the desired therapeutic effect?

The nurse is caring for a client immediately following a cardioversion. What nursing actions are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

An adult client who has been experiencing a seizure for approximately 15 minutes is brought to the emergency department by private vehicle. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

A nurse is caring for a client who returns to the nursing unit from the recovery room after a sigmoid colon resection for adenocarcinoma. The client had an episode of intraoperative bleeding. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client may be developing hypovolemic shock?

The nurse is assessing a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which finding would the nurse expect to observe? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

You are caring for a client in the ED with B/P 254/139 mm Hg. Which of the following actions would you take first?

A client experiences impaired swallowing after a stroke and has worked with speech-language pathology on eating. What nursing assessment best indicates that the expected outcome for this problem has been met?

An acute care nurse receives a shift report for a client who has increased intracranial pressure. The nurse is told that the client demonstrates decorticate posturing. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect to observe when assessing the client?