The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who is HIV positive. While teaching her about the use of antiretroviral drugs, the nurse explains that these medications will

Treat opportunistic infections

Supplement radiation and chemotherapy

Decrease viral loads in the blood

Cure acute HIV/AIDS infections

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Treat opportunistic infections. Antiretroviral drugs do not directly treat opportunistic infections. They help suppress the HIV virus, which in turn strengthens the immune system, reducing the risk of opportunistic infections, but specific infections require separate antimicrobial treatment.

B. Supplement radiation and chemotherapy. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is not used as a supplement to radiation or chemotherapy. While HIV-positive patients can develop certain cancers like Kaposi’s sarcoma, ART is aimed at controlling HIV rather than being a direct cancer treatment.

C. Decrease viral loads in the blood. Antiretroviral drugs work by suppressing HIV replication, thereby decreasing viral load in the bloodstream. This helps maintain immune function, reduces the risk of perinatal transmission, and improves overall health outcomes. Consistent use of ART can even lower viral loads to undetectable levels, significantly reducing transmission risk.

D. Cure acute HIV/AIDS infections. There is no cure for HIV/AIDS. Antiretroviral therapy helps manage the disease by reducing viral replication and preventing progression to AIDS, but it does not eradicate the virus from the body. Lifelong adherence to ART is necessary for disease control.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The type of uterine incision used for the cesarean. This is the most important information because the type of uterine incision determines whether a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) is safe. A low transverse incision is the safest and has the lowest risk of uterine rupture, while a classical (vertical) incision carries a high risk of rupture and contraindicates vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC).

B. The client's blood type and Rh status. While blood type and Rh status are important for managing potential complications such as Rh incompatibility, they do not determine the safety of a VBAC attempt. The uterine incision type is the key factor in assessing the risk of uterine rupture.

C. The client's response to anesthesia used for the last delivery. Although anesthesia history is relevant for planning pain management, it is not the most critical factor in determining whether the patient can safely attempt a vaginal delivery after a prior cesarean.

D. Lab values, especially hemoglobin and hematocrit. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels help assess for anemia or blood loss risk, but they do not affect the safety of a VBAC attempt. The primary concern is uterine integrity, which is determined by the type of previous cesarean incision.

A. Correct coagulation failure by giving platelets B. Provide emotional support to the woman and her family. C. Maintain cardiac output and entice intakes & output. D. Administer oxygen by tight face mask B-10L/min.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Correct coagulation failure by giving platelets. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (amniotic fluid embolism) can cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), but correcting coagulation abnormalities is not the immediate priority. The first intervention should focus on oxygenation and stabilizing the cardiovascular system.

B. Provide emotional support to the woman and her family. While emotional support is important, this is not the priority in a life-threatening emergency. The focus should be on immediate resuscitation efforts to prevent maternal and fetal death.

C. Maintain cardiac output and assess intake & output. Maintaining cardiac output is critical, but this is secondary to oxygenation. The initial response should be administering high-flow oxygen to improve maternal and fetal oxygenation before managing hemodynamic stability.

D. Administer oxygen by tight face mask 8-10L/min. Amniotic fluid embolism causes sudden respiratory distress, hypoxia, and cardiovascular collapse. Immediate high-flow oxygen delivery is the first and most critical intervention to improve oxygenation, support cardiac function, and prevent further complications.

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The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who is HIV positive. While teaching her about the use of antiretroviral drugs, the nurse explains that these medications will

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

If the nurse suspects a patient has experienced anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy (amniotic fluid embolus), which of the following is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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During a vaginal delivery the midwife tells you that a shoulder dystocia has occurred. Which of the following initial nursing actions is appropriate at this time?

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