A nurse is monitoring the labor of a patient who is receiving IV oxytocin (Pitocin) at 6 ml/hr. Which of the following clinical signs would lead the nurse to stop the infusion?

Maternal temperature of 101.4 F

Maternal blood pressure of 138/89

Change in fetal baseline heart rate from 125 to 90

Change in the maternal pulse from 80 to 93

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Maternal temperature of 101.4°F. A fever may indicate infection (chorioamnionitis), but it is not an immediate reason to stop oxytocin. The nurse should monitor for additional signs of infection and notify the provider, but the priority is fetal well-being.

B. Maternal blood pressure of 138/89. This blood pressure is not critically high and does not indicate a hypertensive crisis. Oxytocin can cause fluid retention and slight blood pressure changes, but this reading alone does not require stopping the infusion.

C. Change in fetal baseline heart rate from 125 to 90. A decrease in fetal heart rate (bradycardia) is a sign of fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Oxytocin can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal hypoxia. The priority is to stop oxytocin, reposition the mother, provide oxygen, and notify the provider.

D. Change in the maternal pulse from 80 to 93. A mild increase in heart rate is not uncommon during labor and may be due to pain, anxiety, or IV fluids. It does not indicate an emergency or the need to stop oxytocin.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Preterm labor. Methotrexate is not used for preterm labor. Medications such as tocolytics (e.g., nifedipine, magnesium sulfate, or terbutaline) are typically used to delay labor and improve neonatal outcomes, but methotrexate does not serve this purpose.

B. Abruptio placentae. Methotrexate is not indicated for abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Management of abruptio placentae focuses on stabilizing the mother, monitoring fetal well-being, and delivering the baby if necessary.

C. Pre-eclampsia. Methotrexate does not treat pre-eclampsia. The management of pre-eclampsia includes antihypertensive medications, magnesium sulfate for seizure prevention, and delivery of the baby when indicated.

D. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy. Methotrexate is the first-line treatment for an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. It works by inhibiting rapidly dividing trophoblastic cells, stopping the growth of the ectopic pregnancy while preserving the fallopian tube. It is only used in stable patients with small, unruptured ectopic pregnancies and no signs of internal bleeding.

A. Internal fetal monitoring B. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity C. Contraction stress test D. Ultrasound for placenta location

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Internal fetal monitoring. Internal fetal monitoring is contraindicated when placenta previa is suspected because it involves inserting a catheter or electrode into the uterus, which can increase the risk of hemorrhage if the placenta is covering the cervix.

B. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity. While fetal lung maturity assessment may be relevant if early delivery is being considered, it is not an immediate diagnostic procedure for evaluating the cause of vaginal bleeding. The priority is to determine placenta location and rule out placenta previa.

C. Contraction stress test. A contraction stress test evaluates fetal response to contractions but is not the appropriate initial diagnostic test in a patient with vaginal bleeding. Stimulating contractions could worsen bleeding if placenta previa or another placental abnormality is present.

D. Ultrasound for placenta location. The first-line diagnostic test for painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is an ultrasound. It helps determine whether the bleeding is due to placenta previa, a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which requires careful management to prevent complications.

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A nurse is monitoring the labor of a patient who is receiving IV oxytocin (Pitocin) at 6 ml/hr. Which of the following clinical signs would lead the nurse to stop the infusion?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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