A primigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant visits the clinic fearing she is experiencing preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse make to confirm or negate these thoughts? Select all that apply.

Right Sided Epigastric pain

Uterine contractions

Bright red painless vaginal bleeding

Severe headache

Visual disturbances

Dull back ache

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,D,E

A. Right-sided epigastric pain. Epigastric pain, especially on the right side, is a concerning sign of preeclampsia and may indicate liver involvement due to elevated liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome. This symptom should be assessed further as it suggests worsening disease progression.

B. Uterine contractions. Uterine contractions are not a defining feature of preeclampsia. They are more commonly associated with preterm labor rather than hypertension-related complications. While preeclampsia can lead to preterm birth, contractions alone do not confirm or negate the condition.

C. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding is more indicative of placenta previa or another obstetric complication rather than preeclampsia. Preeclampsia primarily presents with hypertension, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms rather than vaginal bleeding.

D. Severe headache. A severe headache is a classic symptom of preeclampsia, often due to elevated blood pressure and cerebral edema. Persistent headaches that do not resolve with usual interventions should be evaluated promptly as they may indicate worsening hypertension or an impending seizure.

E. Visual disturbances. Visual disturbances such as blurred vision, photophobia, or seeing spots are common in preeclampsia and can signal cerebral edema or increased intracranial pressure. This is a significant warning sign requiring immediate assessment.

F. Dull backache. A dull backache is more commonly associated with musculoskeletal strain, labor, or a urinary tract infection rather than preeclampsia. While discomfort can be present in pregnancy, it is not a defining symptom of preeclampsia.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Quantity of vaginal bleeding. While both placenta previa and abruptio placentae can cause vaginal bleeding, the amount alone does not differentiate between the two conditions. Placenta previa typically causes painless, bright red bleeding, whereas abruptio placentae often presents with concealed or variable bleeding, making quantity an unreliable distinguishing factor.

B. Presence of abdominal pain. Abdominal pain is a key differentiating factor. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding, while abruptio placentae causes sudden, severe abdominal pain due to placental detachment and uterine muscle irritation. This makes the presence or absence of pain an important assessment finding.

C. Leopold's maneuver results. While Leopold’s maneuvers help determine fetal position and presentation, they do not provide definitive information about the location of the placenta or differentiate between placenta previa and abruptio placentae. Ultrasound is a more reliable diagnostic tool for this purpose.

D. Maternal blood pressure. Although abruptio placentae can lead to hypovolemic shock and blood pressure changes due to hemorrhage, maternal blood pressure alone is not a primary diagnostic criterion for differentiating between the two conditions. Other clinical findings such as pain and ultrasound results are more useful for diagnosis.

A. Induction of labor with intravenous oxytocin. B. An emergency cesarean section C. In-hospital fetal monitoring for 48 hours D. Discharge home on strict bed rest

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Induction of labor with intravenous oxytocin. Induction is contraindicated in cases of abruptio placentae with a Category III fetal heart rate tracing, as labor induction can worsen fetal distress and maternal bleeding. An immediate cesarean section is the safest intervention to prevent fetal and maternal complications.

B. An emergency cesarean section. A Category III fetal heart rate tracing with minimal variability and a prolonged deceleration indicates severe fetal distress, requiring immediate delivery. Partial abruptio placentae can cause fetal hypoxia, maternal hemorrhage, and potential fetal demise. The priority is an emergency cesarean section to ensure the best outcome for both mother and baby.

C. In-hospital fetal monitoring for 48 hours. Continuous monitoring is essential in cases of mild abruptio placentae without fetal distress, but in this case, a Category III tracing indicates an immediate threat to the fetus, making waiting inappropriate.

D. Discharge home on strict bed rest. Abruptio placentae is a serious obstetric emergency, and home management is never appropriate when fetal distress is present. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent fetal and maternal complications.

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A primigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant visits the clinic fearing she is experiencing preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse make to confirm or negate these thoughts? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 29-week gravid patient is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with vaginal bleeding. To differentiate between placenta previa and abruptio placentae, the nurse should assess which of the following?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client at 35 weeks' gestation is admitted with a partial abruptio placenta and a Category III fetal heart rate tracing with minimal variability and a prolonged deceleration. The nurse anticipates a plan of care for this client that includes most importantly:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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