A primigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant visits the clinic fearing she is experiencing preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse make to confirm or negate these thoughts? Select all that apply.

Right Sided Epigastric pain

Uterine contractions

Bright red painless vaginal bleeding

Severe headache

Visual disturbances

Dull back ache

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,D,E

A. Right-sided epigastric pain. Epigastric pain, especially on the right side, is a concerning sign of preeclampsia and may indicate liver involvement due to elevated liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome. This symptom should be assessed further as it suggests worsening disease progression.

B. Uterine contractions. Uterine contractions are not a defining feature of preeclampsia. They are more commonly associated with preterm labor rather than hypertension-related complications. While preeclampsia can lead to preterm birth, contractions alone do not confirm or negate the condition.

C. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding is more indicative of placenta previa or another obstetric complication rather than preeclampsia. Preeclampsia primarily presents with hypertension, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms rather than vaginal bleeding.

D. Severe headache. A severe headache is a classic symptom of preeclampsia, often due to elevated blood pressure and cerebral edema. Persistent headaches that do not resolve with usual interventions should be evaluated promptly as they may indicate worsening hypertension or an impending seizure.

E. Visual disturbances. Visual disturbances such as blurred vision, photophobia, or seeing spots are common in preeclampsia and can signal cerebral edema or increased intracranial pressure. This is a significant warning sign requiring immediate assessment.

F. Dull backache. A dull backache is more commonly associated with musculoskeletal strain, labor, or a urinary tract infection rather than preeclampsia. While discomfort can be present in pregnancy, it is not a defining symptom of preeclampsia.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Oral hypoglycemic medications. While some oral hypoglycemic agents, such as metformin or glyburide, are used in gestational diabetes, the first-line treatment is always dietary modification and exercise. Medications are only introduced if blood glucose levels remain uncontrolled with lifestyle changes.

B. Diet control and exercise. The initial treatment for gestational diabetes focuses on controlling blood glucose through dietary adjustments, portion control, and regular physical activity. If lifestyle modifications fail to maintain glucose levels within the target range, insulin or oral medications may be introduced.

C. Inhaled insulin. Inhaled insulin is not commonly used in pregnancy because its safety and efficacy for gestational diabetes have not been well established. Insulin therapy, if needed, is typically administered via subcutaneous injection rather than inhalation.

D. Regular insulin injections. Insulin therapy is considered if diet and exercise alone fail to control blood glucose levels. However, it is not the first-line treatment, as many women can successfully manage gestational diabetes without requiring insulin therapy.

A. Midplane contracture of the pelvis B. Disproportion of the pelvis. C. Low-lying placenta D. Compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Midplane contracture of the pelvis. Pelvic contractures can lead to dystocia by restricting the fetal head's descent. A midplane contracture narrows the pelvic midsection, making labor prolonged and difficult. This is a common cause of dystocia.

B. Disproportion of the pelvis. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD), where the fetal head is too large for the maternal pelvis, is a well-known cause of dystocia. It often results in prolonged labor, failure to progress, and the need for cesarean delivery.

C. Low-lying placenta. A low-lying placenta does not directly cause dystocia. Instead, it may lead to placenta previa, which often requires cesarean delivery before labor even begins. Since it does not typically cause prolonged or difficult labor, it is the least common cause of dystocia.

D. Compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication. Excessive pain medication, especially epidurals or narcotics, can weaken maternal pushing efforts, leading to prolonged second-stage labor. This is a recognized cause of dystocia, particularly in multiparous women.

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A primigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant visits the clinic fearing she is experiencing preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse make to confirm or negate these thoughts? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A woman who is 26 weeks pregnant has just found out that she has gestational diabetes. Which of the following therapies will most likely be ordered first for this patient?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The least common cause of long. difficult, or abnormal labor (dystocia) is:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse would include which of the following statements when describing the pathophysiology of gestational diabetes?

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