A primigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant visits the clinic fearing she is experiencing preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse make to confirm or negate these thoughts? Select all that apply.

Right Sided Epigastric pain

Uterine contractions

Bright red painless vaginal bleeding

Severe headache

Visual disturbances

Dull back ache

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,D,E

A. Right-sided epigastric pain. Epigastric pain, especially on the right side, is a concerning sign of preeclampsia and may indicate liver involvement due to elevated liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome. This symptom should be assessed further as it suggests worsening disease progression.

B. Uterine contractions. Uterine contractions are not a defining feature of preeclampsia. They are more commonly associated with preterm labor rather than hypertension-related complications. While preeclampsia can lead to preterm birth, contractions alone do not confirm or negate the condition.

C. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding is more indicative of placenta previa or another obstetric complication rather than preeclampsia. Preeclampsia primarily presents with hypertension, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms rather than vaginal bleeding.

D. Severe headache. A severe headache is a classic symptom of preeclampsia, often due to elevated blood pressure and cerebral edema. Persistent headaches that do not resolve with usual interventions should be evaluated promptly as they may indicate worsening hypertension or an impending seizure.

E. Visual disturbances. Visual disturbances such as blurred vision, photophobia, or seeing spots are common in preeclampsia and can signal cerebral edema or increased intracranial pressure. This is a significant warning sign requiring immediate assessment.

F. Dull backache. A dull backache is more commonly associated with musculoskeletal strain, labor, or a urinary tract infection rather than preeclampsia. While discomfort can be present in pregnancy, it is not a defining symptom of preeclampsia.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure in conditions such as eclampsia. A reduction in blood pressure indicates that the medication is achieving its intended effect of controlling hypertension, reducing the risk of complications like stroke or organ damage.

B. The patient states that her headache is gone. While headaches are a symptom of severe hypertension, their resolution does not directly confirm the effectiveness of hydralazine. Other factors, such as pain relief or improved postpartum recovery, could contribute to headache relief.

C. The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds. Postpartum weight loss is expected due to fluid shifts and loss of pregnancy-related fluids, but it is not a direct measure of hydralazine’s effectiveness. The medication does not act as a diuretic or weight-loss agent.

D. The patient has had no seizures since delivery. While hydralazine helps lower blood pressure, preventing seizures in eclamptic patients is primarily managed with magnesium sulfate, not hydralazine. The absence of seizures is important but does not indicate the specific effectiveness of this antihypertensive medication.

A. True B. False

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

While many women are able to get pregnant again after an ectopic pregnancy, it is not guaranteed. The ability to conceive again depends on various factors, such as:

The extent of damage to the fallopian tube.
Whether one or both tubes are still functional.
The treatment used (e.g., methotrexate vs. surgery).
Any underlying fertility issues.

It is important to be honest but reassuring, explaining that many women do go on to have healthy pregnancies, but future fertility can be affected and should be discussed with a healthcare provider. Saying she "absolutely will" get pregnant again is inaccurate and potentially misleading.

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A primigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant visits the clinic fearing she is experiencing preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse make to confirm or negate these thoughts? Select all that apply.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A woman is admitted due to a suspected ectopic pregnancy. While explaining treatment the patient asks if she will be able to get pregnant again. You answer that she absolutely will get pregnant again. Is this the correct thing to say?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Professor Proctor: Always wants us to be safe while traveling anywhere- especially when coming to class. This is prioritized even over being on time.

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