A primigravida who is 28 weeks pregnant visits the clinic fearing she is experiencing preeclampsia. Which of the following assessments would the nurse make to confirm or negate these thoughts? Select all that apply.
Right Sided Epigastric pain
Uterine contractions
Bright red painless vaginal bleeding
Severe headache
Visual disturbances
Dull back ache
Correct Answer : A,D,E
A. Right-sided epigastric pain. Epigastric pain, especially on the right side, is a concerning sign of preeclampsia and may indicate liver involvement due to elevated liver enzymes or HELLP syndrome. This symptom should be assessed further as it suggests worsening disease progression.
B. Uterine contractions. Uterine contractions are not a defining feature of preeclampsia. They are more commonly associated with preterm labor rather than hypertension-related complications. While preeclampsia can lead to preterm birth, contractions alone do not confirm or negate the condition.
C. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding. Bright red painless vaginal bleeding is more indicative of placenta previa or another obstetric complication rather than preeclampsia. Preeclampsia primarily presents with hypertension, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms rather than vaginal bleeding.
D. Severe headache. A severe headache is a classic symptom of preeclampsia, often due to elevated blood pressure and cerebral edema. Persistent headaches that do not resolve with usual interventions should be evaluated promptly as they may indicate worsening hypertension or an impending seizure.
E. Visual disturbances. Visual disturbances such as blurred vision, photophobia, or seeing spots are common in preeclampsia and can signal cerebral edema or increased intracranial pressure. This is a significant warning sign requiring immediate assessment.
F. Dull backache. A dull backache is more commonly associated with musculoskeletal strain, labor, or a urinary tract infection rather than preeclampsia. While discomfort can be present in pregnancy, it is not a defining symptom of preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Enteral nutrition (TPN) to correct nutritional deficits. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is only considered in severe cases where oral and IV hydration fail. The initial treatment focuses on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances before considering more invasive nutritional support.
B. Small frequent meals. While small, frequent meals may help manage nausea in mild cases of pregnancy-related nausea and vomiting, they are not sufficient for treating hyperemesis gravidarum, which involves severe, persistent vomiting leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
C. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. Corticosteroids are not the first-line treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum. They may be used in refractory cases where standard treatments fail, but IV fluids and antiemetics are prioritized initially.
D. IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The primary concern in hyperemesis gravidarum is severe dehydration and electrolyte disturbances due to excessive vomiting. IV fluids, often with electrolytes and thiamine, are the first step in stabilizing the patient before introducing oral intake.
Correct Answer is ["B","D"]
Explanation
A. Occiput anterior position. The occiput anterior (OA) position is the ideal fetal position for vaginal delivery, where the baby’s head is well-engaged in the pelvis. This positioning reduces the risk of a prolapsed cord since the presenting part (the fetal head) effectively blocks the cord from slipping through.
B. Breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are the presenting part, leaving more space in the birth canal. This increases the risk of cord prolapse, especially if the feet or buttocks do not fully block the cervix, allowing the umbilical cord to slip past and become compressed.
C. Cervical dilation 5 cm. While cervical dilation is important in labor progression, it does not directly increase the risk of cord prolapse. The risk is more dependent on fetal position and station rather than the degree of cervical dilation.
D. Station -4. A high fetal station (e.g., -4) means the baby’s presenting part has not yet descended into the pelvis, leaving more room for the umbilical cord to slip through once the membranes rupture. A well-engaged fetus at station 0 or lower helps prevent prolapse by blocking the cervix.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.