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The nurse is continuing to care for the client.

Exhibits

Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.

The client is at greatest risk for developing

and .
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}

Rationale for Correct Choices:

  • Seizures: The client presents with severe preeclampsia, indicated by BP >160/110 mm Hg, 3+ proteinuria, hyperreflexia (patellar reflex 4+), and persistent headache. These are strong predictors of progression to eclampsia, which is marked by seizures.
  • Placental Abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to vascular compromise in the uteroplacental circulation. Decreased fetal movement may be an early warning sign of impaired placental perfusion or separation.

Rationale for Incorrect Choices:

  • Cervical Insufficiency: This is a painless cervical dilation often leading to second-trimester loss, unrelated to hypertension or proteinuria. The client is in the third trimester with no signs of cervical changes.
  • Hypoglycemia: The client has no history of diabetes, glucose intolerance, or related symptoms. Her urine glucose was only trace, and no medications suggest insulin use.
  • Heart Failure: No signs of pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, or elevated heart rate are present. Oxygen saturation is normal, and breath sounds are not mentioned as abnormal, making CHF unlikely at this stage.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Prolonged QT interval: This is not a typical sign of morphine toxicity. QT prolongation is more commonly associated with certain antipsychotics, antiarrhythmics, or methadone, not opioids like morphine.

B. Fluid retention: Morphine does not typically cause fluid retention. While it may contribute to urinary retention, generalized fluid accumulation is not characteristic of opioid toxicity and may point to other causes like heart or renal failure.

C. Bradypnea: Respiratory depression, including bradypnea, is the hallmark sign of opioid toxicity. Morphine suppresses the brainstem’s respiratory centers, reducing respiratory rate and depth, which can become life-threatening without intervention.

D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes: Opioids tend to cause central nervous system depression, which would more likely lead to diminished reflexes. Hyperactive reflexes are not associated with morphine toxicity and may suggest a different neurological issue.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:

A. “Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.": Calcium supplementation is not a standard treatment for dehydration. Dehydration is primarily managed with fluid replacement, either orally or intravenously, depending on severity.

B. "Dehydration is caused by a decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.": Dehydration often causes increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels due to hemoconcentration, not a decrease. These lab values are used to assess hydration status but do not cause dehydration.

C. "Dehydration is associated with gastroesophageal reflux”: GERD is not a direct cause or result of dehydration. While fluid intake can influence GI symptoms, GERD and dehydration are unrelated conditions with different pathophysiologies.

D. "Dehydration can increase the risk for preterm labor”: Dehydration can trigger the release of antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin, both of which may lead to uterine contractions. It is a recognized risk factor for preterm labor and should be addressed promptly.

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