The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following sentence.
The client is at greatest risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Rationale for Correct Choices:
- Seizures: The client presents with severe preeclampsia, indicated by BP >160/110 mm Hg, 3+ proteinuria, hyperreflexia (patellar reflex 4+), and persistent headache. These are strong predictors of progression to eclampsia, which is marked by seizures.
- Placental Abruption: Severe hypertension increases the risk of placental abruption due to vascular compromise in the uteroplacental circulation. Decreased fetal movement may be an early warning sign of impaired placental perfusion or separation.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices:
- Cervical Insufficiency: This is a painless cervical dilation often leading to second-trimester loss, unrelated to hypertension or proteinuria. The client is in the third trimester with no signs of cervical changes.
- Hypoglycemia: The client has no history of diabetes, glucose intolerance, or related symptoms. Her urine glucose was only trace, and no medications suggest insulin use.
- Heart Failure: No signs of pulmonary congestion, dyspnea, or elevated heart rate are present. Oxygen saturation is normal, and breath sounds are not mentioned as abnormal, making CHF unlikely at this stage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Use passive listening techniques during conflict resolution: Passive listening involves minimal engagement and can lead to misunderstandings or missed key concerns. Active listening is more effective in conflict resolution as it validates feelings and clarifies perspectives.
B. Ask closed-ended questions about the conflict: Closed-ended questions limit the depth of responses and may not fully uncover the underlying issues. Open-ended questions encourage dialogue and help reveal the root causes of conflict more effectively.
C. Ensure each individual can respond defensively about the conflict: Allowing or encouraging defensive responses can escalate tension and hinder resolution. A nonjudgmental and respectful environment promotes open communication and constructive problem-solving.
D. Gather individual information regarding the conflict: Collecting information from each party separately allows the nurse manager to understand different perspectives, identify miscommunications, and develop a balanced and informed approach to resolving the conflict.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Sudden muscular contractions: Antipsychotics like haloperidol and chlorpromazine can cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), including acute dystonia, which manifests as sudden, involuntary muscle contractions typically affecting the face, neck, or back.
B. Orthostatic hypotension: Chlorpromazine, a low-potency typical antipsychotic, often causes orthostatic hypotension due to its alpha-adrenergic blockade, increasing fall risk, especially in older adults or those new to therapy.
C. Anticholinergic effects: These include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. Chlorpromazine is particularly known for its anticholinergic side effects due to its action on muscarinic receptors.
D. Tremors: Tremors are part of parkinsonian side effects, another form of EPS commonly caused by haloperidol. They result from dopamine blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway.
E. Sedation: Both haloperidol and chlorpromazine can cause sedation. Chlorpromazine is especially sedating due to its histamine (H1) receptor blockade, which depresses the CNS.
F. Increased urination: Not typically associated with these medications. In fact, anticholinergic effects from chlorpromazine more often lead to urinary retention, not increased urination.
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