The nurse is continuing to care for the client.
Vital Signs.
Day 1, 0900:. Temperature (oral) 36.9° C (98.4° F). Heart rate 72/min.
Respiratory rate 16/min.
BP 162/112 mm Hg. Day 1, 0930:. Oxygen saturation 97% on room air.
Temperature (oral) 37.1° C (98.8° F). Heart rate 84/min.
Respiratory rate 18/min.
BP 166/110 mm Hg. Oxygen saturation 99% on room air.
Drag words from the choices below to fill in each blank in the following.
sentence.
The client is at greatest risk for developing Target 1 and Target 2. Conditions.
Placental abruption.
Cervical insufficiency.
Seizures.
Hypoglycemia.
Heart failure.
Correct Answer : A,C
The correct answers are Choices A and C.
Choice A rationale: Severe hypertension in pregnancy disrupts placental perfusion and vascular integrity, increasing risk of placental abruption due to premature separation and hemorrhage, threatening both maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B rationale: Cervical insufficiency is linked to structural weakness or trauma, not hypertension; it typically presents with painless dilation and is unrelated to elevated blood pressure or vascular compromise.
Choice C rationale: Hypertensive encephalopathy and preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, marked by seizures. Elevated BP increases cerebral edema and excitability, triggering convulsions if unmanaged.
Choice D rationale: Hypoglycemia is not a direct consequence of hypertension; it’s more associated with insulin dysregulation, poor intake, or medication effects, not elevated blood pressure.
Choice E rationale: Heart failure may occur in chronic hypertension but is less acute than seizure or abruption risk in this context. No signs of fluid overload or cardiac decompensation are present in the vitals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice C, the system is working properly.
Choice A rationale: The lung has re-expanded is incorrect. If the lung has re-expanded, there would be no tidaling in the water seal chamber, as the pleural space would be restored to its normal negative pressure.Tidaling indicates that there is still air or fluid in the pleural space that needs to be drained
Choice B rationale: There is a loop of tubing below the drainage system is incorrect. A loop of tubing below the drainage system would not cause tidaling in the water seal chamber, but it could cause fluid accumulation in the tubing, which could impair the drainage and increase the risk of infection.The tubing should be straight and free of kinks or loops
Choice C rationale: The system is working properly is correct. Tidaling in the water seal chamber means that the water level rises and falls with the patient’s respirations. This is normal and expected, as it indicates that the chest tube is patent and connected to the pleural space, and that the drainage system is airtight and preventing air or fluid from entering the pleural space.Tidaling should stop when the lung is fully re-expanded or the chest tube is clamped
Choice D rationale: The tubing is partially obstructed by clots is incorrect. If the tubing is partially obstructed by clots, there would be no tidaling in the water seal chamber, as the chest tube would not be able to drain the air or fluid from the pleural space. The water level in the water seal chamber would be stagnant, and the patient may experience respiratory distress.The tubing should be checked regularly for clots and milked gently if needed
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Answer is: b. Document the client's condition every 15 min.
Explanation: The nurse manager should include the guideline to document the client's condition every 15 minutes while using belt restraints. This is to ensure close monitoring of the client's physical and psychological well-being and to evaluate the ongoing need for restraint use.
Choice a. is wrong because requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive might not be appropriate. The use of restraints should be based on a thorough assessment of the client's condition and should be the least restrictive method possible.
Choice c. is wrong because attaching the restraint to the bed's side rails poses a safety risk to the client, as the side rails can be lowered accidentally or intentionally, leading to potential injury.
Choice d. is wrong because removing the client's restraint every 4 hours might not be appropriate, as it depends on the client's specific needs, facility policies, and state regulations. The nurse should follow appropriate guidelines for removing restraints and reassess the client's need for continued restraint use.
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