The nurse is discussing dietary choices with a client who is newly diagnosed with celiac disease. Which menu choice by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Wild rice.
Oatmeal.
Corn chips.
Potatoes.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Wild rice is naturally gluten-free. It is not a grain, but rather a semi-aquatic grass seed. It is safe for individuals with celiac disease to consume.
Wild rice is a good source of nutrients. It is high in fiber, protein, and antioxidants, and it contains a variety of vitamins and minerals, including manganese, phosphorus, magnesium, and zinc. These nutrients can help to support overall health and well-being.
Wild rice can be a versatile ingredient in many dishes. It can be used in salads, soups, stews, pilafs, and even desserts.
Choice B rationale:
Oatmeal is not gluten-free. It is made from oats, which are a type of cereal grain that contains gluten. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten, as it can trigger an autoimmune reaction that damages the small intestine.
Even small amounts of gluten can cause harm. Consuming even a small amount of oatmeal can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, fatigue, and headache in individuals with celiac disease.
Long-term damage can occur. If individuals with celiac disease continue to consume gluten, it can lead to long-term health problems, such as malnutrition, osteoporosis, and infertility.
Choice C rationale:
Corn chips are typically gluten-free. However, it is important to check the label to be sure, as some brands may contain gluten- containing ingredients, such as wheat flour or barley malt.
Reading labels is essential. Individuals with celiac disease should always read food labels carefully to ensure that products are gluten-free.
Choice D rationale:
Potatoes are naturally gluten-free. They are a safe and healthy food choice for individuals with celiac disease.
Potatoes are a versatile and nutritious food. They are a good source of carbohydrates, fiber, potassium, vitamin C, and other nutrients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Isoniazid's Mechanism of Action:
It targets and inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids, which are essential components of the cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis.
By disrupting cell wall formation, isoniazid prevents bacterial growth and multiplication, leading to the suppression and eventual eradication of the infection.
Clinical Manifestations of Active TB:
Persistent cough, often productive of sputum (phlegm), is a hallmark symptom of TB. The sputum may contain blood or have a rusty-colored appearance.
Other common symptoms include fever, night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, and chest pain. How Isoniazid Reduces Cough and Sputum:
As isoniazid effectively kills the TB bacteria, the inflammatory process within the lungs subsides.
This leads to a gradual decrease in the production of sputum, which is a direct result of the inflammatory response. Consequently, the frequency and severity of coughing episodes also diminish.
Monitoring Treatment Response:
Regular sputum smears and cultures are essential to assess the response to treatment.
A positive sputum smear indicates the presence of live TB bacteria, while a positive culture confirms their growth in the laboratory.
A gradual decrease in the number of bacteria seen on sputum smears, followed by negative cultures, signals a favorable response to treatment.
Timeframe for Improvement:
It's important to note that clinical improvement, including a reduction in cough and sputum, may not be immediately evident. It typically takes several weeks of consistent isoniazid therapy to achieve noticeable results.
Therefore, adherence to the prescribed treatment regimen is crucial for successful TB eradication. Addressing Other Choices:
Choice A: Decreased appetite and weight loss are often associated with active TB due to systemic inflammation and nutritional deficiencies. While isoniazid treatment may indirectly improve appetite and weight gain over time, these are not primary indicators of its effectiveness in suppressing the TB infection itself.
Choice C: Vertigo and tinnitus are potential side effects of isoniazid, but they do not reflect its efficacy in treating TB.
Choice D: A positive sputum smear and culture would indicate ongoing TB infection and a lack of response to treatment.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Anorexia is a common symptom of cirrhosis, but it is not the most immediate concern in a client with esophageal varices.
Anorexia can result from various factors, including impaired liver function, hormonal imbalances, early satiety due to ascites,
and nausea.
While it's important to address anorexia to maintain nutritional status, it doesn't directly indicate a life-threatening
complication like bleeding varices.
Choice B rationale:
Brown, foamy urine is a characteristic of kidney problems, specifically proteinuria.
It's not directly associated with esophageal varices or their complications.
While cirrhosis can affect kidney function due to fluid imbalances and impaired filtering, brown, foamy urine wouldn't be the
primary indicator of bleeding varices.
Choice C rationale:
Clay-colored stool is a sign of biliary obstruction, which can occur in cirrhosis due to impaired bile flow.
However, it's not a direct indicator of bleeding varices.
Clay-colored stool results from a lack of bile pigments in the stool, which give it its typical brown color.
Choice D rationale:
Hematemesis, or vomiting of blood, is the most critical symptom to monitor in a client with esophageal varices.
Here's why:
Esophageal varices are enlarged, swollen veins in the esophagus that develop due to increased pressure in the portal venous
system, a common consequence of cirrhosis.
These varices are fragile and prone to rupture, which can lead to massive, life-threatening bleeding.
Hematemesis is a clear sign that variceal bleeding has occurred and requires immediate intervention.
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