The nurse is discussing dietary choices with a client who is newly diagnosed with celiac disease. Which menu choice by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Wild rice.
Oatmeal.
Corn chips.
Potatoes.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Wild rice is naturally gluten-free. It is not a grain, but rather a semi-aquatic grass seed. It is safe for individuals with celiac disease to consume.
Wild rice is a good source of nutrients. It is high in fiber, protein, and antioxidants, and it contains a variety of vitamins and minerals, including manganese, phosphorus, magnesium, and zinc. These nutrients can help to support overall health and well-being.
Wild rice can be a versatile ingredient in many dishes. It can be used in salads, soups, stews, pilafs, and even desserts.
Choice B rationale:
Oatmeal is not gluten-free. It is made from oats, which are a type of cereal grain that contains gluten. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten, as it can trigger an autoimmune reaction that damages the small intestine.
Even small amounts of gluten can cause harm. Consuming even a small amount of oatmeal can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, fatigue, and headache in individuals with celiac disease.
Long-term damage can occur. If individuals with celiac disease continue to consume gluten, it can lead to long-term health problems, such as malnutrition, osteoporosis, and infertility.
Choice C rationale:
Corn chips are typically gluten-free. However, it is important to check the label to be sure, as some brands may contain gluten- containing ingredients, such as wheat flour or barley malt.
Reading labels is essential. Individuals with celiac disease should always read food labels carefully to ensure that products are gluten-free.
Choice D rationale:
Potatoes are naturally gluten-free. They are a safe and healthy food choice for individuals with celiac disease.
Potatoes are a versatile and nutritious food. They are a good source of carbohydrates, fiber, potassium, vitamin C, and other nutrients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The most likely diagnosis for this client isB. Pulmonary embolism and postpartum hemorrhage.
Here’s why:
- Postpartum Hemorrhage:
- The client has a large amount of lochia rubra, indicating significant blood loss.
- Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are low (7.5 g/dL and 22%, respectively), which is consistent with significant blood loss.
- Symptoms like feeling lightheaded, pale appearance, and cool, clammy skin further support this diagnosis.
- Pulmonary Embolism:
- The client is experiencing shortness of breath, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air.
- Elevated D-dimer levels (1.5 µg/mL) suggest the presence of a clot.
- Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results show a low PaO2 (60 mmHg) and a slightly acidic pH (7.32), which can be seen in pulmonary embolism.
- The client reports a feeling of tightness in her chest and has a rapid heart rate (120 beats per minute), which are also indicative of a pulmonary embolism.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hemoccult test on sputum collected from hemoptysis is not a diagnostic test for TB. It is a test for blood in the stool, which can be a symptom of TB but is not specific to TB.
Hemoptysis, or coughing up blood, can occur in various conditions, including bronchitis, pneumonia, lung cancer, and TB. The Hemoccult test cannot differentiate between these causes, making it an unreliable test for diagnosing TB.
Choice B rationale:
Sputum culture positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the definitive diagnostic test for TB.
It involves collecting a sample of sputum, which is the mucus coughed up from the lungs, and culturing it in a laboratory to see if Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes TB, grows.
This test is highly specific for TB, meaning that a positive result is almost always indicative of TB infection. It is also sensitive, meaning that it can detect TB infection even when there are few bacteria present.
Choice C rationale:
Positive purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test indicates exposure to TB but does not confirm active infection.
The PPD skin test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin, a protein derived from Mycobacterium tuberculosis, into the skin.
If a person has been exposed to TB, their immune system will react to the tuberculin, causing a raised red bump to appear at the injection site.
However, a positive PPD skin test does not necessarily mean that a person has active TB infection.
It could also mean that they have been exposed to TB in the past but have successfully fought off the infection. Further testing, such as a sputum culture, is needed to confirm the diagnosis of TB.
Choice D rationale:
Chest X-ray or computed tomography (CT) can show abnormalities in the lungs that are suggestive of TB, but they cannot definitively diagnose TB.
These imaging tests can reveal changes in the lungs, such as nodules, inflammation, or fluid buildup, which can be caused by TB or other conditions.
Therefore, a chest X-ray or CT scan alone is not sufficient to diagnose TB. A sputum culture is still needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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