The nurse is discussing the treatment of congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprungs disease) with the caregivers of a 3-day-old newborn infant who presented with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Which statement is the best explanation of the treatment for this diagnosis?

The treatment for the disorder will be a surgical procedure

Your child will be treated with oral iron preparations to correct the anemia

Your child will receive counseling so the underlying concerns will be addressed

We will give enemas until clear and then teach you how to do these at home

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The primary treatment for congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease) is surgical intervention to remove the affected segment of the bowel, allowing for normal bowel function and preventing complications such as bowel obstruction.

B. Oral iron preparations would not address the underlying condition of Hirschsprung's disease, which is related to the lack of nerve cells in the bowel.

C. While counseling may be beneficial for the caregivers regarding the diagnosis and care, it is not the primary treatment for Hirschsprung's disease.

D. While enemas may be used temporarily to relieve constipation, they are not a definitive treatment for the disease, which requires surgical correction.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Elevating the affected part is correct and helps reduce swelling and bleeding.

B. Resting the affected area is appropriate and will help minimize movement and further bleeding.

C. Applying heat is not recommended for bleeding episodes as it can increase blood flow and exacerbate bleeding; ice is generally recommended.

D. Compressing the site is appropriate as it helps control bleeding and provides pressure to the affected area.

A. Offer the child guitar chicken broth B. Initiate oral rehydration therapy C. Start hypertonic solution D. Keep NPO until the diarrhea subsides

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. While clear chicken broth can provide some hydration, it does not contain the necessary electrolytes to replace losses effectively.

B. Initiating oral rehydration therapy is critical for managing dehydration due to diarrhea and is the best approach for a child in this situation.

C. Starting a hypertonic solution is inappropriate and could lead to further dehydration or electrolyte imbalances.

D. Keeping the child NPO is not necessary; it is more important to maintain hydration and possibly offer oral rehydration solutions.

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The nurse is discussing the treatment of congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprungs disease) with the caregivers of a 3-day-old newborn infant who presented with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Which statement is the best explanation of the treatment for this diagnosis?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

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