The nurse is discussing the treatment of congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprungs disease) with the caregivers of a 3-day-old newborn infant who presented with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Which statement is the best explanation of the treatment for this diagnosis?
The treatment for the disorder will be a surgical procedure
Your child will be treated with oral iron preparations to correct the anemia
Your child will receive counseling so the underlying concerns will be addressed
We will give enemas until clear and then teach you how to do these at home
The Correct Answer is A
A. The primary treatment for congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung's disease) is surgical intervention to remove the affected segment of the bowel, allowing for normal bowel function and preventing complications such as bowel obstruction.
B. Oral iron preparations would not address the underlying condition of Hirschsprung's disease, which is related to the lack of nerve cells in the bowel.
C. While counseling may be beneficial for the caregivers regarding the diagnosis and care, it is not the primary treatment for Hirschsprung's disease.
D. While enemas may be used temporarily to relieve constipation, they are not a definitive treatment for the disease, which requires surgical correction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E"]
Explanation
A. Encouraging frequent fluid intake helps to dilute the urine and promotes urination, which can help flush out bacteria.
B. Frequent voiding is essential to reduce the risk of bacterial growth in the bladder and to alleviate symptoms.
C. Wiping from front to back is important in preventing the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.
D. Wearing nylon underwear may trap moisture and create an environment conducive to bacterial growth; cotton underwear is preferred.
E. Completing the course of antibiotics is crucial for fully eradicating the infection and preventing recurrence.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administering Children's Tylenol (acetaminophen) is appropriate for pain relief in toddlers and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
B. Children's Ibuprofen is also acceptable for pain management in this age group, demonstrating the caregiver's understanding of pain management options.
C. Completing the entire course of antibiotics is essential to ensure the infection is fully treated and helps prevent antibiotic resistance.
D. Baby aspirin is contraindicated in children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, indicating that the caregiver needs further teaching regarding safe medication administration for pain.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.