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The nurse is educating the patient about the diagnosis of hypertension. Which statement made by the nurse is most accurate?

"For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, the BP readings should be higher than normal on 2 or more separate occasions."

"For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, BP readings should be lower than normal on only one occasion."

"For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, BP readings should be higher than normal on more than three separate occasions."

"For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, the BP readings should be higher than normal on only one occasion."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. "For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, the BP readings should be higher than normal on 2 or more separate occasions.": This statement accurately reflects the criteria for diagnosing hypertension. According to guidelines, a diagnosis is typically confirmed when blood pressure readings consistently exceed normal levels (usually defined as 130/80 mm Hg) on two or more separate visits.

B. "For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, BP readings should be lower than normal on only one occasion.": This statement is incorrect. A single low reading does not confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. In fact, it contradicts the concept of hypertension, which involves consistently high readings.

C. "For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, BP readings should be higher than normal on more than three separate occasions.": This statement is misleading. While multiple readings are often taken, the threshold for diagnosis is two or more elevated readings, not three.

D. "For confirmed diagnosis of hypertension, the BP readings should be higher than normal on only one occasion.": This statement is inaccurate, as a single elevated reading is not sufficient for diagnosis. Consistent elevations over multiple occasions are necessary for a confirmed diagnosis.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Vitamin A: While vitamin A can affect various bodily functions, it is not known to have a direct interaction with warfarin. Therefore, it is not considered incompatible with warfarin therapy.

B) Alprazolam: This medication, a benzodiazepine, is primarily used to treat anxiety and does not have a significant interaction with warfarin. Thus, it is not incompatible with warfarin therapy.

C) Vitamin K: This vitamin is a critical consideration when a client is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so an increased intake of vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin, making this the correct answer. Clients on warfarin should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K to prevent fluctuations in their INR levels.

D) Furosemide: This loop diuretic is used to manage conditions such as heart failure and edema. While it may affect electrolyte levels, it does not have a direct interaction that would render it incompatible with warfarin. It can be safely used alongside warfarin with appropriate monitoring.

A. Intermittent claudication B. Decreased pedal pulses C. Bronze/brown discoloration of the skin D. Cool skin temperature E. Full screen mode is in effect during your proctored testing.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Intermittent claudication: This symptom is indicative of arterial insufficiency, not chronic venous insufficiency. Intermittent claudication is characterized by pain in the legs during activity due to insufficient blood flow, which is not typical in venous conditions.
B) Decreased pedal pulses: In chronic venous insufficiency, pedal pulses are usually normal. Decreased pedal pulses suggest arterial disease, where blood flow is compromised. Thus, this finding would not be expected in a client with venous insufficiency.

C) Bronze/brown discoloration of the skin: This is a hallmark finding in chronic venous insufficiency. The discoloration occurs due to the deposition of hemosiderin from the breakdown of red blood cells, which is a result of prolonged venous stasis and chronic edema, particularly around the lower extremities.

D) Cool skin temperature: Skin temperature in chronic venous insufficiency is typically warm due to increased blood flow and stasis in the veins. Cool skin temperature is more characteristic of arterial insufficiency, where blood supply is reduced and can lead to cooler extremities.

E) Full screen mode is in effect during your proctored testing: This statement is irrelevant to the clinical assessment of chronic venous insufficiency and serves no purpose in understanding the client’s condition. It does not contribute to the assessment findings.

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The nurse is educating the patient about the diagnosis of hypertension. Which statement made by the nurse is most accurate?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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