The nurse is examining a female patient in an OB clinic who complains of severe pain during menstruation and intercourse.
The nurse suspects endometriosis.
Which of the following is true?
Infertility will most likely not be an issue for this patient.
If the patient gets pregnant, she is more likely to have multiples.
The patient should take acetaminophen for pain relief.
Oral contraceptives may be helpful for this patient.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Infertility is a common issue for women with endometriosis. The endometrial tissue that grows outside the uterus can cause scarring and inflammation, which can block fallopian tubes and prevent eggs from being released or fertilized. Studies have shown that 30-50% of women with endometriosis experience infertility.
It is important to address this potential issue with the patient and discuss options for fertility preservation if desired.
Choice B rationale:
There is no evidence to suggest that women with endometriosis are more likely to have multiples. The likelihood of having multiples is primarily influenced by factors such as genetics, maternal age, and the use of fertility treatments.
Choice C rationale:
Acetaminophen may not be effective for pain relief in women with endometriosis. The pain associated with endometriosis is often severe and can be unresponsive to over-the-counter pain relievers. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen or naproxen are often more effective in managing endometriosis-related pain.
In some cases, stronger pain medications such as opioids may be necessary.
Choice D rationale:
Oral contraceptives can be helpful for women with endometriosis by:
Suppressing ovulation, which can reduce the amount of endometrial tissue that grows and bleeds each month.
Thinning the uterine lining, which can also reduce pain and bleeding.
Slowing the growth of endometrial tissue.
Oral contraceptives are not a cure for endometriosis, but they can help to manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Performing a vaginal exam is not the priority intervention for a client experiencing hypotension after an epidural. While a vaginal exam may be necessary to assess cervical dilation and fetal station, it does not address the underlying cause of the client's hypotension.
Additionally, a vaginal exam could potentially worsen the client's hypotension by stimulating the vagus nerve, which can lead to decreased heart rate and blood pressure.
Therefore, it is not the most appropriate initial response in this situation.
Choice B rationale:
Turning the client onto her side is the most appropriate initial response to hypotension after an epidural. This position helps to increase venous return to the heart, which can improve cardiac output and blood pressure.
It also helps to prevent aortocaval compression, which can occur when the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing blood flow back to the heart.
By turning the client onto her side, the nurse can quickly and easily address the underlying cause of the hypotension and help to improve the client's hemodynamic status.
Choice C rationale:
Catheterizing the client may be necessary if the client is unable to void spontaneously, but it is not the priority intervention for hypotension after an epidural.
Urinary retention can occur after an epidural, but it is not typically the cause of hypotension in this setting.
Therefore, catheterization would not be the most appropriate initial response.
Choice D rationale:
Decreasing the IV fluid rate may be necessary if the client is experiencing fluid overload, but it is not the priority intervention for hypotension after an epidural.
In fact, decreasing the IV fluid rate could potentially worsen the hypotension by reducing the circulating blood volume.
Therefore, it is not the most appropriate initial response.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A positive contraction stress test (CST) indicates that the fetal heart rate decelerates late in response to uterine contractions, suggesting potential uteroplacental insufficiency. However, the scenario does not describe a CST being performed, as it does not mention any assessment of uterine contractions or their relationship to fetal heart rate changes.
Choice C rationale:
A negative contraction stress test (CST) would demonstrate no late decelerations in response to contractions, suggesting adequate placental function. However, as mentioned earlier, a CST is not the test being performed in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
A non-reactive nonstress test (NST) means that there were not enough fetal heart rate accelerations (at least 2, each lasting at least 15 seconds and peaking at least 15 beats above baseline) within a 20-minute period. This finding sometimes warrants further evaluation of fetal well-being. However, the scenario clearly states that 3 accelerations meeting the criteria for reactivity were observed.
Choice B rationale:
A reactive nonstress test (NST) is considered reassuring and indicates that the fetal heart rate is responding appropriately to fetal movement, suggesting that the fetus is likely healthy and well-oxygenated. The presence of 3 accelerations meeting the criteria for reactivity within a 20-minute period is the hallmark of a reactive NST.
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