When preparing a client for an emergency cesarean birth with no time to administer spinal anesthesia, what is the greatest risk of administering general anesthesia to the client?
Respiratory depression.
Aspiration of stomach contents.
Uterine relaxation.
Inadequate muscle relaxation.
The Correct Answer is B
Answer and explanation
The correct answer is B. Aspiration of stomach contents.
Choice A rationale:
Respiratory depression is a potential risk of general anesthesia, but it is not the greatest risk in this scenario.
It is usually well-managed by the anesthesiologist during surgery.
They will closely monitor the patient's respiratory status and adjust the level of anesthesia as needed to maintain adequate breathing.
If respiratory depression does occur, it can be quickly reversed with medications.
Choice B rationale:
Aspiration of stomach contents is the most serious risk of general anesthesia in pregnant women.
This is because pregnancy causes a number of changes in the gastrointestinal system that increase the risk of aspiration:
The growing uterus puts pressure on the stomach, which can cause stomach contents to reflux into the esophagus.
Pregnancy hormones can relax the esophageal sphincter, which is the muscle that normally prevents food and stomach acid from coming back up the esophagus.
Labor can further delay gastric emptying, leading to a higher volume of stomach contents.
If stomach contents are aspirated into the lungs, it can cause a serious and potentially fatal condition called aspiration pneumonia.
It is important to note that aspiration can occur even if a woman has been fasting before surgery.
This is because the stomach never completely empties, and there is always some risk of reflux.
Choice C rationale:
Uterine relaxation is a potential side effect of some general anesthetic agents, but it is not a major risk in this scenario.
The anesthesiologist will choose an anesthetic agent that is less likely to cause uterine relaxation.
Additionally, they will closely monitor the patient's uterine tone and can administer medications to stimulate the uterus if necessary.
Choice D rationale:
Inadequate muscle relaxation is not a major risk of general anesthesia in this scenario.
The anesthesiologist will ensure that the patient's muscles are adequately relaxed to facilitate surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Semen analysis is the initial test often performed in the evaluation of infertility. It's a non-invasive, cost-effective, and informative assessment of male fertility. Here's a detailed explanation of its significance:
Assessment of Sperm Quality:
Measures sperm count, motility (movement), and morphology (shape).
Abnormalities in any of these parameters can significantly impact the chances of conception.
Identification of Male Factor Infertility:
Contributes to approximately 40% of infertility cases.
Early identification of male factor infertility guides treatment options and avoids unnecessary testing for the female partner.
Non-Invasive and Cost-Effective:
Simple procedure involving the collection of a semen sample.
Relatively inexpensive compared to other fertility tests.
Informative Results:
Provides valuable insights into sperm health and potential causes of infertility.
Guides further diagnostic evaluation and treatment strategies.
Rationale for other choices:
Choice B: Transvaginal ultrasound
Primarily evaluates female reproductive organs.
Assesses uterine structure, ovarian function, and potential abnormalities like fibroids or cysts.
Not typically the first test in infertility evaluation unless there's a specific female-factor concern.
Choice C: Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
Assesses the patency of the fallopian tubes.
Involves X-ray imaging after injecting contrast dye into the uterus.
Often performed after semen analysis if male factor infertility is not identified.
Choice D: Hysteroscopy
A more invasive procedure involving direct visualization of the inside of the uterus.
Used to diagnose and treat uterine abnormalities such as polyps or fibroids.
Not typically a first-line test in infertility evaluation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Bishop score: A tool used to assess the readiness of the cervix for labor induction. It evaluates factors such as cervical dilation, effacement, consistency, position, and station of the fetal presenting part.
Score ranges from 0 to 13: A higher score indicates a more favorable cervix for induction.
Score of 6 or less: Induction is less likely to be successful.
Score of 9 or higher: Induction is more likely to be successful.
Nurses understand: The importance of the Bishop score in predicting the likelihood of successful induction.
Nurses use this information: To counsel patients about the risks and benefits of induction, to prepare for induction, and to monitor progress during induction.
Choice B rationale:
Not always done for medical reasons: Induction can also be elective, meaning it is chosen for non-medical reasons, such as convenience or a desire to avoid a post-term pregnancy.
Examples of medical reasons:
Gestational hypertension or preeclampsia
Fetal growth restriction
Prolonged pregnancy
Chorioamnionitis
Oligohydramnios
Choice C rationale:
Trial of labor (TOL): A term used to describe a vaginal birth attempt after a previous cesarean delivery.
Not synonymous with induction of labor: TOL can occur spontaneously or be induced.
Choice D rationale:
Not always electively done at 37 weeks' gestation: The decision to induce labor at 37 weeks is made on a case-by-case basis.
Factors considered:
Maternal and fetal health
Bishop score
Patient preferences
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