The nurse is obtaining a focused interview. Which statements made by the client suggest that the client has an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease? Select all that apply.
"I have cut back on fat and switched to a vegetarian diet."
"I have cut back on my smoking."
"I have been stressed out since my divorce last year."
"I have an occasional glass of wine."
"I have gained 25 pounds over the past year."
Correct Answer : C,E
A) "I have cut back on fat and switched to a vegetarian diet." This statement suggests a positive change in dietary habits, which can lower the risk of cardiovascular disease. A vegetarian diet, particularly if it includes plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, is associated with a reduced risk of heart disease. Therefore, this statement does not indicate an increased risk.
B) "I have cut back on my smoking." While reducing smoking is a positive step, smoking itself is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. However, the statement indicates an attempt to decrease risk, which does not inherently suggest an increased risk. It may show improvement rather than risk.
C) "I have been stressed out since my divorce last year." Chronic stress is a recognized risk factor for cardiovascular disease, as it can lead to behaviors such as poor diet, inactivity, and increased blood pressure. This statement highlights a significant concern for the client’s cardiovascular health.
D) "I have an occasional glass of wine." Moderate alcohol consumption is sometimes associated with cardiovascular benefits. While excessive drinking can pose risks, this statement alone does not indicate an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. It reflects moderation rather than concern.
E) "I have gained 25 pounds over the past year." Weight gain, especially if it leads to obesity, is a significant risk factor for developing cardiovascular disease. This statement indicates a change in health status that could negatively impact the client’s cardiovascular risk profile.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A) Texture: Assessing the texture of the skin is an important part of a comprehensive skin assessment. It provides insights into the health and hydration status of the skin. Normal skin texture should feel smooth and even, while changes can indicate issues such as dryness or conditions like eczema or psoriasis.
B) Tachypnea: This term refers to an increased respiratory rate and is not a characteristic assessed in the skin. While it can indicate a physiological response to various conditions, it does not relate to skin health or characteristics and therefore is not relevant in this context.
C) Turgor: Skin turgor refers to the elasticity and hydration status of the skin, which can be assessed by pinching the skin. Proper turgor indicates adequate hydration, while decreased turgor can signal dehydration or other health issues. This is an essential component of skin assessment.
D) Temperature: Assessing the temperature of the skin can provide information about circulation and potential inflammation or infection. Normal skin temperature should feel warm and consistent, while variations can suggest underlying conditions such as fever or shock.
E) Tympany: Tympany is a term used in percussion assessments of the abdomen and is not applicable to skin assessment. It refers to a hollow sound produced by tapping on a body surface and does not pertain to skin characteristics.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Eupnea: Eupnea refers to a normal respiratory rate, typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute for adults. Given that the client’s respiratory rate is significantly lower than this range, documenting the finding as eupnea would not accurately reflect the client’s condition.
B) Bradypnea: Bradypnea is defined as a slower-than-normal respiratory rate, usually less than 12 breaths per minute. With the client's rate at 9 breaths per minute, this is an example of bradypnea. It is crucial for the nurse to document this finding accurately, even though the client denies feeling short of breath, as it could indicate an underlying issue requiring further assessment.
C) Tachypnea: Tachypnea indicates a faster-than-normal respiratory rate, typically over 20 breaths per minute. Since the client's respiratory rate is low at 9 breaths per minute, labeling it as tachypnea would be incorrect and misleading.
D) Dyspnea: Dyspnea refers to difficulty or discomfort in breathing. Although the client does not report feeling short of breath, it is essential to note that the low respiratory rate could still lead to respiratory distress, but it does not meet the criteria for dyspnea based on the client's self-report. Therefore, documenting this finding as dyspnea would not be appropriate.
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