The nurse is obtaining an obstetrical history on a currently pregnant woman. The client has an 18-month-old daughter who was delivered 2 days after estimated due date and a 3-year-old son who was born at 35 weeks' gestation. Before her son was born, she lost two pregnancies: one at 10 weeks and the other at 22 weeks. Using the GTPAL method, how would the nurse record this history?
G5 T1 P2 A1 L2
G5 T2 P2 A1 L2
G4 T1 P2 A2 L2
G4 T1 P1 A2 L2
The Correct Answer is A
A) G5 T1 P2 A1 L2:
G (Gravida): Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. In this case, the woman is currently pregnant and has had 4 previous pregnancies (one miscarriage at 10 weeks, one at 22 weeks, and two live births). Therefore, her Gravida (G) is 5.
T (Term births): Term births are those that occur at or after 37 weeks of gestation. The woman delivered an 18-month-old daughter who was born 2 days after her due date, which is a term birth. Thus, her Term (T) is 1.
P (Preterm births): Preterm births occur between 20 and 36 weeks of gestation. The woman had a son born at 35 weeks, which is classified as a preterm birth. Therefore, the Preterm (P) is 2.
A (Abortions or miscarriages): Abortions refer to pregnancies that ended before 20 weeks of gestation. The woman experienced two miscarriages, one at 10 weeks and one at 22 weeks. Thus, the Abortions (A) is 1.
L (Living children): Living children are those who are currently alive. The woman has a 3-year-old son and an 18-month-old daughter, so the Living (L) is 2.
Thus, the correct GTPAL classification is G5 T1 P2 A1 L2.
B) G5 T2 P2 A1 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman had only one term birth (not two). She delivered her daughter at term, but the son was preterm (born at 35 weeks). Therefore, her Term (T) should be 1, not 2.
C) G4 T1 P2 A2 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Additionally, the woman had 1 abortion, not 2.
D) G4 T1 P1 A2 L2:
This is also incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Furthermore, the woman had 2 preterm births, not 1.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Decrease the client's IV fluids:
Sinusoidal fetal heart rate patterns are concerning and typically indicate severe fetal distress, which is often associated with conditions such as fetal anemia, hypoxia, or central nervous system (CNS) damage. Decreasing IV fluids is not an appropriate response to a sinusoidal pattern. The primary focus should be on fetal well-being, not fluid management, in this situation.
B) Prepare the client for an emergent birth:
This pattern is typically associated with severe fetal compromise and is an ominous sign. Immediate intervention is required, and emergent delivery may be necessary to prevent further fetal distress and potential harm. The nurse should promptly notify the healthcare provider and prepare the client for an emergency cesarean delivery or other urgent interventions.
C) Turn the client to a supine position:
The supine position is not recommended for managing fetal distress, as it may decrease uterine blood flow and worsen the situation, especially if the fetus is experiencing hypoxia. The appropriate intervention for addressing a sinusoidal heart rate pattern is not repositioning the client in a supine position, but rather preparing for emergency delivery and providing immediate support to stabilize both mother and fetus.
D) Document the findings:
While it is important to document any fetal heart rate pattern, sinusoidal patterns require immediate action. Documentation alone is not sufficient in this case, as it does not address the potential life-threatening situation for the fetus. The nurse should not delay action, and the focus should be on preparing for emergency birth and notifying the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Practicing effleurage on the abdomen:
It is an excellent non-pharmacological pain management technique that can help distract the mother, reduce anxiety, and alleviate some of the discomfort associated with early labor. It also promotes relaxation and can help manage early labor pain effectively without the need for medications. This technique is easy to perform and can be done by the nurse or the partner, providing emotional support along with pain relief.
B) Beginning epidural anesthesia:
Epidural anesthesia is typically not initiated in the early phase of labor unless there is a specific indication or a desire for significant pain relief early in the process. An epidural is more commonly offered in the later stages of labor, when the pain is more intense and the cervix is further dilated. Starting an epidural too early could expose the mother to unnecessary risks and is generally not recommended unless it's requested or deemed medically necessary.
C) Using an opioid antagonist, such as Butorphanol:
Opioids, including Butorphanol, can have side effects such as drowsiness, nausea, and respiratory depression in both the mother and fetus. These medications are more commonly used in later stages of labor or when more potent pain relief is required. Additionally, opioid antagonists like Butorphanol may not be the best choice for a client who is experiencing anxiety and mild to moderate pain in the early phase, as they may not provide the relaxation and coping support that non-pharmacological methods like effleurage offer.
D) Immersing the client in hot water in a pool or Jacuzzi:
While immersion in water can be a helpful method of pain relief, especially during labor, it is generally recommended in the later stages of labor or when the cervix is dilated enough for water immersion to be safely utilized. Immersion in hot water may not be appropriate for all patients and could potentially lead to risks like overheating or changes in blood pressure. Additionally, the early phase of labor often involves less intense pain, and less invasive methods like effleurage are usually preferred first to manage discomfort and reduce anxiety.
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