The nurse is obtaining an obstetrical history on a currently pregnant woman. The client has an 18-month-old daughter who was delivered 2 days after estimated due date and a 3-year-old son who was born at 35 weeks' gestation. Before her son was born, she lost two pregnancies: one at 10 weeks and the other at 22 weeks. Using the GTPAL method, how would the nurse record this history?
G5 T1 P2 A1 L2
G5 T2 P2 A1 L2
G4 T1 P2 A2 L2
G4 T1 P1 A2 L2
The Correct Answer is A
A) G5 T1 P2 A1 L2:
G (Gravida): Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. In this case, the woman is currently pregnant and has had 4 previous pregnancies (one miscarriage at 10 weeks, one at 22 weeks, and two live births). Therefore, her Gravida (G) is 5.
T (Term births): Term births are those that occur at or after 37 weeks of gestation. The woman delivered an 18-month-old daughter who was born 2 days after her due date, which is a term birth. Thus, her Term (T) is 1.
P (Preterm births): Preterm births occur between 20 and 36 weeks of gestation. The woman had a son born at 35 weeks, which is classified as a preterm birth. Therefore, the Preterm (P) is 2.
A (Abortions or miscarriages): Abortions refer to pregnancies that ended before 20 weeks of gestation. The woman experienced two miscarriages, one at 10 weeks and one at 22 weeks. Thus, the Abortions (A) is 1.
L (Living children): Living children are those who are currently alive. The woman has a 3-year-old son and an 18-month-old daughter, so the Living (L) is 2.
Thus, the correct GTPAL classification is G5 T1 P2 A1 L2.
B) G5 T2 P2 A1 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman had only one term birth (not two). She delivered her daughter at term, but the son was preterm (born at 35 weeks). Therefore, her Term (T) should be 1, not 2.
C) G4 T1 P2 A2 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Additionally, the woman had 1 abortion, not 2.
D) G4 T1 P1 A2 L2:
This is also incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Furthermore, the woman had 2 preterm births, not 1.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
A) Fusion of labia in female genitalia:
Fusion of the labia in a female newborn is not an expected finding. This could indicate a condition such as labial adhesion or an abnormality in the development of the genitalia. Normally, the labia in a female newborn are separated. Any signs of fusion would require further evaluation by the healthcare provider.
B) Erythema toxicum on newborn's skin:
Erythema toxicum is a common and expected finding in newborns, usually appearing within the first 2–3 days of life. It consists of small, red papules or pustules on a red base, often described as a "flea-bitten" appearance. This rash is benign and resolves on its own within a few days to weeks. It is not associated with any infection or underlying health issues.
C) Hypospadias is noted in the male newborn:
Hypospadias, a condition where the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis rather than at the tip, is not an expected finding in all newborn males. While it occurs in a small percentage of male infants, it is a congenital anomaly that would require further assessment and possibly surgical correction. It is not considered a normal finding in a newborn.
D) Presence of syndactyly in extremities:
Syndactyly, the condition where two or more fingers or toes are fused together, is not a normal finding in newborns. While it is a congenital anomaly that can occur in some infants, it is not expected and requires further evaluation and possibly surgical intervention depending on the severity.
E) Negative Ortolani sign:
A negative Ortolani sign is an expected and normal finding in a newborn. The Ortolani maneuver is used to assess for hip dislocation, and a negative result indicates that the hip is stable and not dislocated. If the Ortolani sign were positive, it would suggest the presence of a developmental hip dysplasia, which would require further diagnostic evaluation. A negative sign is considered typical and reassuring.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Check fetal heart rate:
The first priority when a woman's membranes spontaneously rupture is to assess fetal well-being. The nurse should immediately check the fetal heart rate (FHR) after the rupture of membranes to evaluate for any signs of fetal distress. If there are any concerns regarding the FHR, further interventions may be needed, such as adjusting the maternal position or preparing for a possible emergent delivery. Monitoring the FHR will help guide subsequent decisions regarding care.
B) Instruct her to bear down with the next contraction:
While the second stage of labor involves pushing, it is important to wait for the appropriate signs of readiness before instructing the mother to bear down. The nurse should ensure the cervix is fully dilated and that fetal descent is progressing appropriately. Rushing into pushing too early or without proper readiness can lead to maternal and fetal complications.
C) Place her legs in stirrups:
Placing the mother’s legs in stirrups is typically done once she is in the active phase of pushing (typically when the cervix is fully dilated and fetal descent is ready). It is not the first priority immediately after the membranes rupture. The nurse should first assess the fetal heart rate and ensure the woman is comfortable and ready to push before assuming the lithotomy position or placing her legs in stirrups.
D) Test a sample of the amniotic fluid for meconium:
Testing the amniotic fluid for meconium should be done if there is concern that the amniotic fluid may be stained, as meconium in the amniotic fluid can be a sign of fetal distress. However, the first action after the membranes rupture is to check the fetal heart rate. If the FHR is normal, further actions, like testing the fluid, may follow, but the priority remains assessing fetal well-being.
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