The nurse is on her break in the hospital cafeteria when she overhears two nurses talking about a client's condition. The nurse understands this could lead to which of the following complaints?
Libel.
Invasion of Privacy.
Slander.
Defamation.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Libel refers to written statements that are false and damaging to a person's reputation. In this scenario, since the nurses are speaking and not writing, libel is not applicable.
Choice B reason: Invasion of privacy pertains to disclosing private information about an individual without their consent. Discussing a client's medical condition in a public place such as the hospital cafeteria where others can overhear constitutes an invasion of privacy. The client’s right to confidentiality has been violated, which could lead to a formal complaint.
Choice C reason: Slander involves spoken statements that are false and damaging to a person's reputation. While the nurses are speaking, there is no indication that what they are saying is false, so slander is not the applicable concern in this situation.
Choice D reason: Defamation is a broad term that includes both libel and slander, which are false statements made to damage someone's reputation. As mentioned earlier, there is no indication that the statements made by the nurses are false; rather, the issue is the inappropriate sharing of private information.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 32-year-old male with a femur fracture in traction is stable but needs ongoing pain management and monitoring for complications like infection or deep vein thrombosis (DVT). While this client requires attention, they are not in immediate critical condition compared to other patients on the list.
Choice B reason: A 38-year-old female with a grade 1 liver laceration admitted 2 days ago also requires close observation for signs of bleeding or worsening liver function. However, given that the liver laceration is of a lesser severity (grade 1), the immediate priority is less critical compared to a client with respiratory compromise.
Choice C reason: A 41-year-old male with 4 rib fractures, pneumothorax, and a chest tube is the highest priority. The presence of pneumothorax indicates a potential life-threatening condition that requires close monitoring to ensure the chest tube is functioning correctly and the lung is re-expanding. Any compromise in the chest tube's functionality can lead to respiratory distress or failure, making this client the most critical and requiring immediate assessment.
Choice D reason: A 55-year-old female admitted 6 days ago with a chest contusion and scheduled for discharge today is likely stable and does not have the same level of urgency as a client with a pneumothorax. This client needs final evaluations and discharge planning, but their condition does not present an immediate life-threatening risk.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While the client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage needs close monitoring, the administration of nimodipine is essential but not immediately life-threatening compared to the post-tPA monitoring requirements.
Choice B reason: This client received tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) 8 hours ago, which is critical for treating ischemic stroke. They are at a high risk of complications such as bleeding and must be monitored closely for any signs of adverse effects, making them the priority.
Choice C reason: The client with chronic atrial fibrillation due for warfarin can be attended to after addressing more urgent needs. Chronic atrial fibrillation management is important, but it is less urgent than post-tPA care.
Choice D reason: The client who experienced a transient ischemic attack and is due for aspirin is stable compared to the client who recently received tPA. While aspirin is important for preventing further strokes, it does not require the same level of immediate monitoring as the post-tPA client.
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