The nurse is preparing to apply the client’s scheduled fentanyl transdermal patch. The nurse notes the previously applied patch is intact on the client’s upper back and the client reports no pain. Which action should the nurse take?
Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client’s pain resolution.
Place the patch on the client’s shoulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours.
Apply the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch.
Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying the new patch.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider about the client’s pain resolution: While it’s essential to assess the need for continued pain management, removing the patch without replacing it could lead to inadequate pain control, especially if the client still requires opioid analgesia. Additionally, fentanyl patches are typically left in place for their prescribed duration, and removing them prematurely could disrupt the pain management plan.
B) Place the patch on the client's sh’ulder and leave both patches in place for 12 hours: Applying a new patch without removing the previous one could result in a higher-than-intended dose of fentanyl, increasing the risk of opioid toxicity. Leaving both patches in place simultaneously is not recommended.
C) Apply the new patch in a different location after removing the original patch: This is the correct action. Applying the new patch in a different location helps prevent skin irritation and ensures consistent drug absorption. Rotating patch sites according to the manufacturer's in’tructions is important for optimal medication delivery.
D) Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness before applying the new patch: While oral analgesics may provide temporary relief, they may not be as effective as transdermal fentanyl for managing chronic pain, especially if the client has been on a stable regimen of fentanyl patches. Additionally, delaying the application of the new patch could lead to inadequate pain control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Sleeps soundly through the night: Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication commonly prescribed for the short-term treatment of insomnia in older adults. The desired outcome of administering zolpidem is improved sleep quality, including the ability to sleep soundly through the night. Documenting that the client sleeps soundly through the night indicates that the medication has achieved its intended effect of promoting sleep.
B) Exhibits fewer emotional outbursts: While zolpidem may indirectly contribute to emotional stability by improving sleep quality, it is not primarily indicated for reducing emotional outbursts. Therefore, this documentation does not specifically reflect the desired outcome of zolpidem administration.
C) Improved ability to concentrate: Zolpidem’s primary effect is on sleep induction rather than concentration. While improved sleep may indirectly enhance concentration in some cases, this documentation does not directly relate to the intended outcome of zolpidem therapy.
D) Decreased episodes of incontinence: Zolpidem is not indicated for the treatment of urinary incontinence, so documenting a decrease in episodes of incontinence would not reflect the desired outcome of zolpidem administration.
Therefore, the most appropriate documentation indicating that the desired outcome has been achieved when administering zolpidem to an older client is that the client “sleeps soundly through the night.” This reflects the medication’s primary purpose of improving sleep quality and duration.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Asking the client to describe how she takes the medication is the most appropriate initial response by the nurse. “Heartburn” reported after taking risedronate raises concerns about potential esophageal irritation or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) exacerbation. Understanding the client’s administration technique (e.g., whether she takes the medication with a full glass of water and remains upright for at least 30 minutes afterward) can help identify potential causes of the reported symptoms.
B) While suggesting the use of an antacid two hours after the medication may provide symptomatic relief, it does not address the underlying issue of potential esophageal irritation or GERD exacerbation related to risedronate administration. Moreover, if the client’s symptoms are due to esophageal irritation, using an antacid may mask the symptoms without addressing the cause.
C) Reminding the client to take the medication with plenty of water is a standard recommendation for bisphosphonate administration to minimize the risk of esophageal irritation and ensure proper drug absorption. However, since the client is already experiencing “heartburn,” further assessment of the client’s medication administration technique is warranted before providing this reminder.
D) Advising the client to go to the nearest emergency department is not appropriate at this stage, as the reported symptom of “heartburn” does not suggest an immediate life-threatening emergency. However, if the client experiences severe chest pain, difficulty swallowing, or signs of a severe allergic reaction (e.g., swelling of the face or throat, difficulty breathing), emergency medical attention would be necessary.
Therefore, the nurse should first assess the client’s medication administration technique to determine if improper administration may be contributing to the reported symptoms. Based on this assessment, appropriate interventions can be provided to address potential esophageal irritation or GERD exacerbation.
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