The nurse is presenting a class to a group of high school students about sexually transmitted infections. What would the nurse include as a major risk factor for cervical cancer?

Human papillomavirus

Human immunodeficiency virus

Syphilis

Gonorrhea

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV), especially types 16 and 18, is the primary cervical cancer risk, causing 99% of cases. This STI triggers oncogenic changes in cervical cells, making it the key factor for this class accurately and fully here.
Choice B reason: HIV weakens immunity, raising HPV persistence risk, but isn’t a direct cervical cancer cause. Its role is secondary, amplifying HPV effects, not independently driving carcinogenesis, excluding it as the major factor comprehensively here entirely.
Choice C reason: Syphilis, a bacterial STI, causes sores, not cervical cancer. It lacks the viral oncogenic mechanism of HPV, rendering it irrelevant as a primary risk factor for this malignancy in the educational context fully here.
Choice D reason: Gonorrhea causes inflammation, not cancer. This bacterial STI doesn’t alter cervical DNA like HPV, making it an incorrect choice for a major risk factor in cervical cancer education for these students entirely here fully.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Rapid ankle oscillations might suggest tremor, possibly basal ganglia issues, not cerebellar dysfunction. The heel-shin test assesses coordination, where cerebellar damage causes drift, not rhythmic shaking, making this less indicative of the target pathology here.
Choice B reason: Heel deviation to one side in the heel-shin test signals cerebellar dysfunction, impairing coordination. The cerebellum fine-tunes movement; damage causes ataxia, leading to inaccurate sliding, making this the key sign of cerebellar issues accurately.
Choice C reason: Pain and knee flexion suggest joint or nerve issues, not cerebellar dysfunction. This test evaluates smooth motion, not pain response; cerebellar problems show ataxia, not discomfort, disconnecting this from the intended motor assessment fully.
Choice D reason: Paresthesia (tingling) indicates sensory nerve issues, not cerebellar motor control. The cerebellum coordinates movement, not sensation; this response misses the coordination focus of the heel-shin test, excluding it as a cerebellar sign here entirely.

A. Thin, gray-white vaginal discharge B. Difficulty with urination C. Irregular bleeding with vaginal dryness D. Painless lumps in the vaginal area

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Thin, gray-white discharge suggests infection like bacterial vaginosis, not menopause. Menopause features dryness, not discharge, making this unrelated to hormonal decline, excluding it as a trigger for menopause education in this case fully here.
Choice B reason: Urinary difficulty may relate to aging or prolapse, not directly menopause. While estrogen loss can affect the urethra, it’s less specific than vaginal symptoms, rendering it secondary for menopause-focused education entirely and accurately here.
Choice C reason: Irregular bleeding and vaginal dryness are hallmark menopause signs, from estrogen drop. Perimenopause causes erratic periods, and dryness reflects atrophy, making this the key finding for targeted menopause education comprehensively and accurately here.
Choice D reason: Painless vaginal lumps suggest cysts or tumors, not menopause. These structural issues lack hormonal ties to estrogen decline, excluding them as menopause indicators needing education compared to bleeding and dryness fully here entirely.

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The nurse is presenting a class to a group of high school students about sexually transmitted infections. What would the nurse include as a major risk factor for cervical cancer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is testing for motor functioning by having the client lie down and slide the heel of the right foot down the left shin and then slide the heel of the left foot down the right shin. Which response by the patient would indicate that there may be cerebellar dysfunction?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is providing a subjective data assessment for an older female. The client verbalizes a list of symptoms regarding their concern. Which findings would lead the nurse to supply education about menopause?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with a wide-based, staggering, unsteady gait walks into the clinic. The gait would be correctly described as which of the following?

A nurse is completing a full assessment for their client on a telemetry unit. During the eye exam, a nurse shines a light into one of the client's eyes and the pupil of the other eye constricts. What is the most appropriate description of this finding?

A decrease in tongue strength is noted on examination of a client. The nurse interprets this as indicating a problem with which cranial nerve?

A client comes in with complaints of a headache. The client states, "I always wake up with a headache in the morning, but it gets better in a couple hours. I notice that it always gets worse if I cough or sneeze." What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

The nursing preceptor is observing the nursing student providing a neurological assessment focusing on various tests for cerebellar function. What would be the priority test the preceptors should expect the student to perform on their client?

A client presents with a cluster of upper airway complaints that include rhinorrhea. Which area of assessment would yield the most pertinent information to the etiology of rhinorrhea?

A nurse is working with a client who has a history of headaches for greater than two months. When preparing to assess the client's temporomandibular joint, what instruction provided to the client would indicate the nurse needs more teaching?