A client presents with a cluster of upper airway complaints that include rhinorrhea. Which area of assessment would yield the most pertinent information to the etiology of rhinorrhea?
Prolonged tonsillar enlargement
History of allergies
Incomplete immunization record
History of epistaxis nosebleeds
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Prolonged tonsillar enlargement may cause throat issues or obstruction, but rhinorrhea stems from nasal inflammation, not tonsils. This focuses on oropharyngeal anatomy, missing the direct nasal etiology tied to runny nose in upper airway complaints here entirely.
Choice B reason: Allergies trigger nasal inflammation via histamine, causing rhinorrhea as IgE-mediated mast cells release mediators. A history of this is key, directly linking environmental triggers to the client’s runny nose, making it the most relevant assessment area accurately.
Choice C reason: Incomplete immunizations increase infection risk, but rhinorrhea more commonly ties to allergies or viruses than vaccine-preventable diseases here. This is less specific to the symptom’s etiology without fever or systemic signs, reducing its pertinence significantly.
Choice D reason: Epistaxis (nosebleeds) relates to vascular fragility, not mucus production like rhinorrhea. Past bleeding doesn’t explain runny nose, focusing on a separate nasal issue, making it less relevant to the upper airway complaint’s root cause in this case fully.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Thrush, a fungal infection from Candida, needs treatment but isn’t immediately urgent unless severe. It’s common in immunocompromised states, manageable with antifungals, lacking the acute, life-threatening potential requiring instant medical escalation in most typical cases here.
Choice B reason: Leukoplakia, white patches in the mouth, may signal precancerous changes linked to oral cancer. Its potential malignancy demands immediate follow-up for biopsy and intervention, distinguishing it as the most urgent diagnosis among these options clearly and critically.
Choice C reason: Gingivitis, gum inflammation, requires dental care but isn’t an immediate medical emergency. It’s reversible with hygiene, not posing the rapid progression risk of leukoplakia, making it less urgent for prompt physician referral in this context fully.
Choice D reason: Canker sores, benign ulcers, heal without intervention and lack systemic threat. Unlike leukoplakia’s cancer risk, they don’t warrant urgent follow-up, remaining a self-limiting condition not necessitating immediate medical escalation beyond routine management here entirely.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Rapid ankle oscillations might suggest tremor, possibly basal ganglia issues, not cerebellar dysfunction. The heel-shin test assesses coordination, where cerebellar damage causes drift, not rhythmic shaking, making this less indicative of the target pathology here.
Choice B reason: Heel deviation to one side in the heel-shin test signals cerebellar dysfunction, impairing coordination. The cerebellum fine-tunes movement; damage causes ataxia, leading to inaccurate sliding, making this the key sign of cerebellar issues accurately.
Choice C reason: Pain and knee flexion suggest joint or nerve issues, not cerebellar dysfunction. This test evaluates smooth motion, not pain response; cerebellar problems show ataxia, not discomfort, disconnecting this from the intended motor assessment fully.
Choice D reason: Paresthesia (tingling) indicates sensory nerve issues, not cerebellar motor control. The cerebellum coordinates movement, not sensation; this response misses the coordination focus of the heel-shin test, excluding it as a cerebellar sign here entirely.
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