The nurse is providing discharge education to a client with hypertension. Which essential information should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Maintaining a low-potassium diet
Skipping a medication dose if dizziness occurs
Maintaining a 2 gram-sodium diet
Drink three glasses of wine a day
The Correct Answer is C
Maintaining a 2 gram-sodium (salt) diet is an important aspect of managing hypertension. High sodium intake can contribute to elevated blood pressure. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is recommended to help control blood pressure levels. The nurse should provide guidance on reading food labels, avoiding high-sodium processed foods, and incorporating a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
The other options listed are not appropriate or beneficial for managing hypertension:
Maintaining a low-potassium diet: Potassium is an essential mineral that helps regulate blood pressure. While specific potassium restrictions may be necessary for some individuals with certain medical conditions, most people with hypertension do not need to limit their potassium intake. In fact, a balanced diet with adequate potassium is generally recommended.
Skipping a medication dose if dizziness occurs: It is not advisable to skip medication doses without consulting a healthcare provider. Hypertension medications are prescribed to help control blood pressure, and missing doses can lead to uncontrolled hypertension and potential complications. If the client experiences dizziness or other side effects from the medication, they should consult their healthcare provider for appropriate management.
Drinking three glasses of wine a day: Excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to elevated blood pressure. The recommended alcohol intake for individuals with hypertension is moderate or limited to moderate levels, which typically means no more than one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men. Drinking excessive amounts of wine or any alcoholic beverage can negatively affect blood pressure control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["D","E"]
Explanation
The traces that should require immediate follow-up by the nurse are:
● Pacer spikes occur directly before the T waves.
Pacer spikes occurring on the T waves indicate an issue with the pacemaker's timing or sensing. This could lead to inappropriate pacing or pacing during the refractory period, which can be detrimental to the client's heart function.
● The heart rate is outside of programmed parameters.
If the heart rate is outside of the programmed parameters set for the client's pacemaker, it may indicate a malfunction or failure of the device or a change in the client's cardiac status. It is important for the nurse to assess the client's condition and notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
Let's review the other options and explain why they do not require immediate follow-up:
Pacer spikes are adequate in number: This indicates that the pacemaker is delivering the appropriate number of electrical impulses as programmed. As long as the other parameters are normal, this finding does not require immediate follow-up.
Pacer spikes occur directly before the P waves: This is the desired and expected pattern for a pacemaker in normal sinus rhythm. It indicates proper timing and coordination between the pacemaker and the client's intrinsic electrical activity.
Pacer spikes occur directly before the QRS waves: This is also the desired and expected pattern for a pacemaker in clients with ventricular pacing. It indicates proper timing and coordination between the pacemaker and the client's intrinsic electrical activity.
The heart rate is within programmed parameters: If the heart rate falls within the programmed parameters set for the client's pacemaker, it indicates that the device is functioning appropriately in maintaining the desired heart rate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The most important finding to report to the health care provider would be the serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq. This is an extremely low potassium level (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L), which can indicate a potentially life-threatening condition called hypokalemia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a diuretic medication that can cause potassium loss in the urine, and a low potassium level can lead to serious cardiac and muscle abnormalities. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the health care provider for appropriate intervention and monitoring.
Blood glucose level of 175 mg/dL: While an elevated blood glucose level can be a concern, especially for individuals with diabetes, it is not the most critical finding in this situation. The client's primary concern is hypertension, and the administration of IV furosemide is aimed at managing blood pressure. The elevated blood glucose level should still be addressed and monitored, but it is not as urgent as the low potassium level.
Orthostatic systolic BP decrease of 12 mm Hg: Orthostatic hypotension refers to a significant decrease in blood pressure upon standing up. While it is important to assess and manage orthostatic changes, a decrease of 12 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure alone may not be considered clinically significant. It could be a normal response for some individuals. However, if the client experiences symptoms such as dizziness or lightheadedness upon standing, further evaluation may be necessary. Nonetheless, it is not as urgent as the low potassium level.
Current blood pressure reading of 166/94 mm Hg: While this blood pressure reading indicates hypertension, it is not the most critical finding to report in this situation. The nurse is preparing to administer furosemide (Lasix), which is a medication commonly used to treat hypertension. It is expected that the blood pressure will be high before administering the medication. The goal is to monitor the blood pressure after the administration to assess the effectiveness of the medication.
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