The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed prednisone to be taken on alternate days. The client asks why he cannot just take half a pill every day.
What rationale should the nurse describe?
To decrease adrenal suppression.
To eliminate adverse side effects.
To prevent steroid tolerance.
To prolong therapeutic effects.
The Correct Answer is A
Prednisone is a glucocorticoid that suppresses the production of natural cortisol by the adrenal glands. Taking prednisone on alternate days allows the adrenal glands to recover and produce some cortisol on the days without prednisone.
Choice B is wrong because prednisone does not eliminate adverse side effects, but may cause some such as weight gain, fluid retention, increased blood pressure, increased blood glucose, and increased risk of infection.
Choice C is wrong because there is no evidence of steroid tolerance, which means that higher doses are needed to achieve the same effect.
Choice D is wrong because prednisone does not prolong therapeutic effects, but may decrease them over time due to feedback inhibition of cortisol secretion.
Normal ranges for cortisol are 6 to 23 mcg/dL in the morning and 2 to 11 mcg/dL in the afternoon.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should ask this question because the client is taking a chemical stimulant laxative, which can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, especially in combination with medications for heart failure and osteoarthritis that may also affect fluid and electrolyte balance. The nurse should assess the client’s hydration status and risk of hypovolemia or hypotension.
Choice B. Timing of medication administration is wrong because it is not the priority question in this situation.
The nurse should ask this question later to determine if the client is taking the medications as prescribed and if there are any drug interactions or adverse effects.
Choice C. Previous effectiveness of laxatives is wrong because it is not relevant to the client’s current condition.
The nurse should ask this question later to evaluate the client’s bowel habits and history of constipation.
Choice D. The amount of fiber intake is wrong because it is not the priority question in this situation.
The nurse should ask this question later to educate the client about dietary measures to prevent constipation and promote bowel health.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Metoclopramide is a medication that increases muscle contractions in the upper digestive tract and speeds up the rate at which the stomach empties into the intestines. It is used to treat gastroparesis (slow stomach emptying) in people with diabetes, which can cause heartburn and stomach discomfort after meals.
Choice A is wrong because impaction is a condition where a large mass of dry, hard stool becomes stuck in the rectum and cannot be passed.
Metoclopramide does not treat impaction, but laxatives or enemas may be used instead.
Choice C is wrong because encopresis is a condition where a child over the age of 4 has involuntary bowel movements, usually due to chronic constipation.
Metoclopramide does not treat encopresis, but behavioral therapy, laxatives, or dietary changes may be used instead.
Choice D is wrong because metoclopramide is not used for clients requiring diagnostic procedures involving the stomach or intestines.
However, it may be used to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy or surgery.
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