The nurse is setting up the patient-controlled analgesia device to deliver morphine for postoperative pain control recognizes the need for further teaching when the client states:
"It will take about 10 minutes for the morphine to reach full effect after I press the button."
"There is a lock-out that keeps me from giving myself too many doses back to back."
"While I'm sleeping, my family can help by pressing the button for me."
"I should push the button about 10 minutes before my physical therapy begins."
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale: Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) devices provide a controlled dose of medication when the patient presses the button. However, the onset of action for morphine is typically faster than 10 minutes.
Choice B rationale: PCA devices often have a lock-out period to prevent patients from administering too many doses too quickly and risking overdose.
Choice C rationale: Patient-controlled analgesia is designed for the patient to self- administer the medication. Allowing family members to press the button may lead to inaccurate dosing.
Choice D rationale: Morphine should be administered as needed, not preemptively.
Administering the medication 10 minutes before physical therapy could result in excessive sedation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Dry mouth is a known side effect of clonidine, and denying this information would be inaccurate.
Choice B rationale: Providing strategies to alleviate the side effect, such as offering hard candy or gum, is a proactive approach to managing the dry mouth without discontinuing the medication.
Choice C rationale: Stopping antihypertensive medication abruptly can lead to rebound hypertension, and the nurse should not encourage discontinuation without consulting the healthcare provider.
Choice D rationale: Adjusting the dose of clonidine should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider; self-adjustment without professional input is not advisable.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Epinephrine is not an antagonist for benzodiazepines. It is primarily used in the treatment of anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest.
Choice B rationale: Atropine is not an antagonist for benzodiazepines. It is used to increase heart rate and treat certain types of poisoning.
Choice C rationale: Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for benzodiazepines. It can be used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as in the case of the patient taking an excessive amount of lorazepam.
Choice D rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and would not be effective in reversing the effects of lorazepam overdose.
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