The nurse learns that a patient will receive an infusion of Propofol for a procedure. The nurse knows that the following will increase risk for adverse effects with this infusion:

History of hyperlipidemia.

History of congestive heart failure

History of breast cancer

History of arthritis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale: Propofol is formulated in a lipid emulsion that can increase the serum triglyceride levels and cause pancreatitis, especially in patients with preexisting hyperlipidemia.
Choice B rationale: History of hyperlipidemia is not typically associated with an increased risk of adverse effects with propofol infusion.
Choice C rationale: History of breast cancer is not directly associated with an increased risk of adverse effects with propofol infusion.
Choice D rationale: History of arthritis is not directly associated with an increased risk of adverse effects with propofol infusion.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Atropine is not primarily used to prevent anxiety. Its main use is to increase heart rate by blocking vagal effects on the heart.
Choice B rationale: Atropine is commonly used to prevent or treat bradycardia, particularly during anesthesia induction, when vagal stimulation can lead to significant slowing of the heart rate.
Choice C rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of atropine, not its primary use. Atropine is not given to prevent dry mouth.
Choice D rationale: Atropine is not used to prevent hypertension. Its primary cardiovascular effect is to increase heart rate.

A. Epinephrine B. Atropine C. Flumazenil D. Naloxone

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Epinephrine is not an antagonist for benzodiazepines. It is primarily used in the treatment of anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest.
Choice B rationale: Atropine is not an antagonist for benzodiazepines. It is used to increase heart rate and treat certain types of poisoning.
Choice C rationale: Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for benzodiazepines. It can be used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepine overdose, such as in the case of the patient taking an excessive amount of lorazepam.
Choice D rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and would not be effective in reversing the effects of lorazepam overdose.

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The nurse learns that a patient will receive an infusion of Propofol for a procedure. The nurse knows that the following will increase risk for adverse effects with this infusion:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A pre-op patient receives Atropine before induction of anesthesia. The nurse caring for this patient understands that this used to prevent?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A 32-year old female patient has been taking lorazepam (Ativan) for her anxiety and is brought into the emergency department after taking 30 days' worth at one time. What antagonist for benzodiazepines may be used in this case?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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