The nurse receives new orders for multiple clients. Which order should be the nurse's priority?
Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually STAT for the client experiencing chest pain.
Lorazepam 2 mg IV now for the client experiencing restlessness and picking at tubing.
Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV now for the client experiencing incisional pain.
One unit packed red blood cells STAT for the client with hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Administering Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually STAT for the client experiencing chest pain should be the nurse's priority because chest pain can be indicative of a myocardial infarction (heart attack), which is a medical emergency. Quick administration of Nitroglycerin can help to relieve chest pain, improve blood flow to the heart, and prevent further cardiac damage.
Choice B reason:
While administering Lorazepam 2 mg IV for the client experiencing restlessness and picking at tubing is important for patient safety and comfort, it is not as urgent as addressing potential cardiac issues indicated by chest pain.
Choice C reason:
Administering Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV for incisional pain management is necessary for the patient’s comfort and pain control but is not as critical as treating potential life-threatening chest pain.
Choice D reason:
Administering one unit of packed red blood cells STAT for the client with a hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL is important but does not take precedence over the immediate risk of a myocardial infarction. The hemoglobin level, while low, is not immediately life-threatening compared to the chest pain scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administering Heparin to a patient who is already taking Warfarin and experiencing rectal bleeding is not appropriate. Heparin is an anticoagulant, similar to Warfarin, and would not help in reversing the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Instead, it could potentially exacerbate the bleeding.
Choice B reason:
Vitamin K is the correct answer because it acts as an antidote to Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so administering Vitamin K helps to reverse the effects of Warfarin and promote blood clotting, which is necessary to control the rectal bleeding in this patient.
Choice C reason:
Iron is not the appropriate treatment for rectal bleeding due to Warfarin. While iron supplements can help with anemia (which might result from chronic blood loss), they do not address the immediate need to reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin and stop the active bleeding.
Choice D reason:
Protamine is used to reverse the effects of Heparin, not Warfarin. Therefore, administering Protamine would not be effective in addressing the Warfarin-induced rectal bleeding in this patient.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Suctioning the patient on a regular schedule is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection and trauma to the airway. Suctioning should be done as needed based on clinical assessment.
Choice B reason:
Adherence to proper hand hygiene is a fundamental practice in preventing infections, including ventilator-associated pneumonia. Hand hygiene helps prevent the transmission of pathogens.
Choice C reason:
Administering antiulcer medication is important for preventing stress ulcers but is not directly related to preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia.
Choice D reason:
Providing oral care per protocol is essential in reducing the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia. Oral care helps decrease the bacterial load in the oropharynx and prevent aspiration of contaminated secretions.
Choice E reason:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees helps prevent aspiration of gastric contents and is a key practice in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia.
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