The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?
Jugular vein distention.
Carotid bruit.
Nuchal rigidity.
Palpable cervical lymph node.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Jugular vein distention:
Jugular vein distention is not typically associated with an increased risk of a stroke. It may be indicative of issues related to cardiac or fluid volume status.
B. Carotid bruit:
This is the correct answer. A carotid bruit, an abnormal sound caused by turbulent blood flow through the carotid artery, may indicate the presence of atherosclerosis and increased risk of stroke. It suggests a narrowing or blockage in the carotid artery, which can potentially lead to emboli and subsequent stroke.
C. Nuchal rigidity:
Nuchal rigidity, stiffness of the neck, is associated with conditions such as meningitis but is not a direct risk factor for a stroke.
D. Palpable cervical lymph node:
Palpable cervical lymph nodes may be indicative of infection or inflammation in the head and neck region but are not directly associated with an increased risk of a stroke.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Encourage regular turning:
While turning is important for preventing complications like pressure ulcers, in this acute situation, addressing fluid imbalance and potential sepsis take precedence.
B. Monitor skin for breakdown:
Monitoring for skin breakdown is essential but is not the most critical intervention at this moment.
C. Assess wound drainage daily:
Daily assessment of wound drainage is important for evaluating the status of the surgical site. However, in this situation of potential anastomosis leakage with signs of systemic infection and hypotension, immediate interventions to stabilize the client's condition are of higher priority.
D. Strict IV fluid replacement:
This is the correct answer. The client is displaying signs of systemic infection (fever) and possible sepsis (tachycardia, hypotension), which might be due to an anastomosis leakage following gastric bypass surgery. Ensuring adequate IV fluid replacement is crucial to address hypotension, maintain perfusion, and support hemodynamic stability in this critical situation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Measure the client's blood pressure:
While monitoring blood pressure is an important aspect of assessing a client's overall condition, it is not the immediate priority in a suspected opioid overdose. Respiratory depression and difficulty in arousing are more critical concerns that warrant prompt intervention with naloxone.
B. Remove all of the morphine patches:
While eventually, the nurse will need to address the presence of multiple morphine patches, removing them is not the first action. Administering naloxone to reverse the opioid effects takes precedence over patch removal.
C. Apply oxygen per face mask:
While providing oxygen may be necessary to support respiratory function, it doesn't address the underlying cause of the respiratory distress, which is likely opioid toxicity. Administering naloxone is the more direct and immediate intervention to counteract the effects of the opioids.
D. Administer a narcotic antagonist:
This is the correct and immediate priority. If the client is difficult to arouse and has multiple morphine patches, it raises concerns about opioid toxicity. Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioid overdose, particularly respiratory depression, and is crucial in this scenario to restore normal respiratory function.
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