The nurse who is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect the initial treatment to involve what?
Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits
Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting
The Correct Answer is A
A. Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances: The primary concern in hyperemesis gravidarum is dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to excessive vomiting. IV fluids are the first-line treatment to restore hydration and correct any imbalances.
B. Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits: Enteral nutrition is considered if the client cannot tolerate oral intake after initial IV therapy, but it is not the first-line treatment.
C. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation: Corticosteroids are not typically used for hyperemesis gravidarum. They may be considered in severe, refractory cases, but they are not part of the initial treatment.
D. Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting: Although pyridoxine (vitamin B6) and antiemetics are commonly used to manage nausea, the initial priority is rehydration and correction of electrolyte imbalances before initiating oral medications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A decrease in fetal heart rate during monitoring: A decrease in fetal heart rate (deceleration) is not a reassuring sign and suggests fetal distress, which is not considered reactive.
B. The presence of at least two fetal heart rate accelerations during 20 minutes of monitoring: A reactive NST is defined as at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period, indicating fetal well-being.
C. A rise in fetal heart rate of at least 15/min from baseline lasting for at least 15 seconds: While this is part of the criteria for determining accelerations, the key aspect of a reactive NST is the presence of at least two such accelerations within a 20-minute period.
D. The absence of fetal heart rate accelerations during monitoring: The absence of accelerations in a 40-minute period is classified as a nonreactive NST, which may indicate fetal hypoxia or other concerns requiring further evaluation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "I should schedule the test when the baby is usually active." The test relies on fetal movements to assess heart rate responses, so scheduling it when the baby is active improves accuracy.
B. "I will have to lie on my back during the test." Lying on the back (supine) can cause supine hypotensive syndrome by compressing the inferior vena cava. The client should lie in a semi-Fowler’s or left lateral position.
C. "My baby's heart rate will be monitored during the test." The NST assesses fetal heart rate patterns in response to movement, so monitoring the fetal heart rate is essential.
D. "It will take 20 to 30 minutes to complete the test." An NST typically lasts 20-30 minutes unless additional monitoring is needed due to a nonreactive result.
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