The nurse who is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect the initial treatment to involve what?
Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits
Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting
The Correct Answer is A
A. Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances: The primary concern in hyperemesis gravidarum is dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to excessive vomiting. IV fluids are the first-line treatment to restore hydration and correct any imbalances.
B. Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits: Enteral nutrition is considered if the client cannot tolerate oral intake after initial IV therapy, but it is not the first-line treatment.
C. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation: Corticosteroids are not typically used for hyperemesis gravidarum. They may be considered in severe, refractory cases, but they are not part of the initial treatment.
D. Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting: Although pyridoxine (vitamin B6) and antiemetics are commonly used to manage nausea, the initial priority is rehydration and correction of electrolyte imbalances before initiating oral medications.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. 3+ protein in the urine: Severe proteinuria (≥2+ on dipstick) is a diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. The presence of 3+ proteinuria is consistent with preeclampsia.
B. 1+ pitting sacral edema: Edema is common in preeclampsia, especially in dependent areas like the hands, face, and sacral region. This is not inconsistent with preeclampsia.
C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg: Preeclampsia is defined as blood pressure ≥140/90 mm Hg after 20 weeks of gestation, with proteinuria or other signs of organ dysfunction. A BP of 148/98 mm Hg is consistent with preeclampsia.
D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1: Hyperreflexia (+3 or +4 reflexes) is a common finding in preeclampsia due to neuromuscular irritability. A +1 reflex response indicates diminished reflexes, which is not characteristic of preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Variable decelerations are due to umbilical cord compression. Variable decelerations are characterized by abrupt decreases in FHR, often with a "V" or "U" shape. They are caused by umbilical cord compression, which disrupts fetal oxygenation.
B. Variable decelerations are a result of the administration of IV narcotic analgesics. Narcotic analgesics (e.g., morphine, fentanyl) cause decreased FHR variability and prolonged decelerations, not variable decelerations.
C. Variable decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency. Uteroplacental insufficiency causes late decelerations, not variable decelerations.
D. Variable decelerations are related to fetal head compression. Fetal head compression causes early decelerations, which are gradual and mirror contractions, unlike variable decelerations.
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