The nurse who is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum would expect the initial treatment to involve what?
Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits
Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation
Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting
The Correct Answer is A
A. Intravenous (IV) therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances: The primary concern in hyperemesis gravidarum is dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to excessive vomiting. IV fluids are the first-line treatment to restore hydration and correct any imbalances.
B. Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits: Enteral nutrition is considered if the client cannot tolerate oral intake after initial IV therapy, but it is not the first-line treatment.
C. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation: Corticosteroids are not typically used for hyperemesis gravidarum. They may be considered in severe, refractory cases, but they are not part of the initial treatment.
D. Antiemetic medication, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting: Although pyridoxine (vitamin B6) and antiemetics are commonly used to manage nausea, the initial priority is rehydration and correction of electrolyte imbalances before initiating oral medications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. First stage, latent phase: The first stage of labor consists of the latent, active, and transition phases. Latent phase: Cervical dilation 0-3 cm, contractions mild and irregular (every 5-10 minutes, lasting 30-45 seconds). Client in this scenario matches these criteria.
B. Second stage of labor: The second stage of labor begins at full cervical dilation (10 cm) and ends with birth. The client is only 2 cm dilated, so she is still in the first stage.
C. First stage, active phase: The active phase of labor occurs when the cervix is 4-7 cm dilated and contractions are stronger, longer, and more frequent (every 3-5 minutes). The client is only 2 cm dilated, so she is still in the latent phase.
D. First stage, transition phase: The transition phase occurs when the cervix is 8-10 cm dilated, and contractions occur every 2-3 minutes, lasting 60-90 seconds. The client is far from this stage.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Blood pressure reading is at the prenatal baseline. If blood pressure remains stable, it does not indicate worsening preeclampsia.
B. Dependent edema has resolved. A decrease in edema suggests an improvement, not worsening, of preeclampsia.
C. Urinary output has increased. Decreased urinary output is concerning in preeclampsia, while increased output suggests better kidney function.
D. The client complains of a headache and blurred vision. These are signs of severe preeclampsia, indicating possible cerebral edema or hypertensive crisis, which requires immediate medical attention.
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