The patient has a large red, blistered area on the left hip.
Which pressure injury stage will be recorded in the patient’s chart?
Stage 2
Stage 4
Stage 3
Stage 1
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Stage 2 pressure injuries are characterized by partial-thickness loss of skin layers involving the epidermis and/or dermis. They present as a red, blistered area, often with an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. The wound bed is typically moist and may be painful. There is no exposure of underlying bone, tendon, or muscle.
Key features of Stage 2 pressure injuries that align with the patient's presentation:
Red, blistered area: This is a hallmark sign of Stage 2, indicating tissue damage and inflammation in the epidermis and dermis. Large size: The size of the wound suggests more extensive tissue damage, consistent with Stage 2 rather than Stage 1.
Absence of deeper tissue involvement: The absence of exposed bone, tendon, or muscle rules out Stage 3 or 4 pressure injuries.
Rationales for other choices:
Choice B: Stage 4
Stage 4 pressure injuries involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. This is not consistent with the patient's presentation, which does not describe exposed deeper tissues.
Choice C: Stage 3
Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness tissue loss, but without exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. They often present with a deep crater-like appearance and may have undermining or tunneling. The patient's wound does not exhibit these features, making Stage 3 less likely.
Choice D: Stage 1
Stage 1 pressure injuries are characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable redness over a bony prominence. They do not involve blisters or open wounds. The patient's presentation clearly exceeds the features of Stage 1.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
While maintaining normal body temperature is important for overall health, it's not the most immediate priority in a patient with fluid volume deficit due to ongoing bleeding. Fluid volume status takes precedence over temperature regulation in this context.
Hypovolemia can lead to hypothermia, but addressing the fluid deficit directly will also help stabilize temperature.
Focusing solely on temperature could delay crucial interventions to address the fluid loss and potentially worsen the patient's condition.
Rationale for Choice B:
An intact surgical incision is essential for proper wound healing and prevention of infection. However, in the context of active bleeding, it's not the priority outcome.
Maintaining adequate fluid volume is crucial to ensure perfusion of tissues, delivery of oxygen and nutrients, and proper organ function—all of which take precedence over incision integrity in this acute situation.
Addressing the fluid deficit will indirectly support wound healing by promoting tissue perfusion and reducing the risk of complications.
Rationale for Choice C:
Patient education is important, but it's not the most immediate priority in a patient with active bleeding and fluid volume deficit.
The patient's ability to comprehend and implement measures to reduce fluid loss may be compromised due to the hypovolemic state and potential cognitive effects.
Focusing on patient education at this stage could delay essential interventions to address the fluid loss and potentially worsen the patient's condition.
Rationale for Choice D:
Urine output is a sensitive and reliable indicator of renal perfusion and overall fluid status. In a patient with fluid volume deficit, maintaining a urine output of at least 30 mL/hour is a key indicator that the kidneys are receiving adequate blood flow and that fluid volume is being restored.
This outcome directly addresses the fluid deficit and serves as a measurable goal for fluid replacement therapy.
It takes priority over other choices because it directly reflects the patient's fluid status and the effectiveness of interventions to address the bleeding and fluid loss.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Echinacea: It has anti-inflammatory properties and is not typically associated with exacerbating rheumatoid arthritis symptoms. Studies have shown potential benefits in reducing inflammation, including evidence of possible effectiveness for osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. However, more research is needed to confirm its efficacy and safety in rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice B rationale:
Turmeric:
Curcumin, the active component of turmeric, has both anti-inflammatory and pro-inflammatory effects.
While it has potential benefits for some inflammatory conditions, it can also stimulate the immune system, which could worsen rheumatoid arthritis symptoms in certain individuals.
Studies have shown mixed results, with some indicating potential benefits and others suggesting a possible worsening of symptoms.
Due to this uncertainty, caution is advised, and patients with rheumatoid arthritis should consult with their healthcare providers before using turmeric supplements.
Choice C rationale:
Ginger: It has well-documented anti-inflammatory properties and is not known to exacerbate rheumatoid arthritis symptoms.
Studies have shown ginger to be potentially effective in reducing pain and inflammation in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis.
It is generally considered safe for use in this population.
Choice D rationale:
Valerian: It is a herb primarily used for its sedative and sleep-promoting effects.
It has not been shown to have any significant impact on inflammation or rheumatoid arthritis symptoms. There is no evidence to suggest that it would worsen the condition.
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