The PMHNP is evaluating a new 17-year-old client with a history of delinquent behavior, including a recent arrest for vandalism. The nurse practitioner suspects conduct disorder based on the client's history and current presentation. According to Erikson, such behavior is a result of the failure to resolve which psychosocial developmental stage?
Industry vs. Inferiority
Intimacy vs. Isolation
Identity vs. Role Confusion
Initiative vs. Guilt
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Industry vs. Inferiority (ages 6–12) involves mastery of skills and competence. While related to behavior, the delinquent acts at 17 reflect identity formation issues, not academic competence.
Choice B reason: Intimacy vs. Isolation occurs in early adulthood (18–40), which is beyond this adolescent’s current stage.
Choice C reason: Identity vs. Role Confusion (adolescence, 12–18 years) involves development of a coherent sense of self. Failure to achieve identity can result in role confusion, risk-taking, and antisocial behaviors, aligning with conduct disorder manifestations.
Choice D reason: Initiative vs. Guilt occurs in early childhood (3–5 years) and does not directly account for adolescent delinquent behavior.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Providing even limited information would breach confidentiality and could undermine trust between the patient and the PMHNP.
Choice B reason: This is the correct answer. At age 18, the patient is legally an adult and entitled to privacy regarding her medical treatment. The PMHNP must obtain her consent before sharing any information with her father, regardless of living arrangements or insurance coverage.
Choice C reason: Answering all questions violates HIPAA regulations and patient confidentiality laws, even though she is covered under the father’s insurance.
Choice D reason: Suggesting an appointment does not address the core confidentiality issue; the PMHNP must still refrain from sharing information without consent.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is correct. Penicillin and other beta-lactams are the first-line antibiotics for intrapartum prophylaxis against GBS, effectively reducing vertical transmission to the newborn.
Choice B reason: Aminoglycosides are not first-line for GBS prophylaxis; they have limited efficacy in this setting and potential maternal and fetal toxicity.
Choice C reason: Sulfonamides are contraindicated late in pregnancy due to risks such as kernicterus in the newborn.
Choice D reason: Fluoroquinolones are not recommended in pregnancy because of potential adverse effects on fetal cartilage development.
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