The student nurse is assessing a woman with abruptio placentae. The student reports to the registered nurse, "I can't really palpate her abdomen, it's as hard as a board." What action by the nurse is the priority?
Assess the woman's fundal height and vital signs.
Administer a dose of opioid pain medication.
Tell the student to document the findings.
Have the student teach the woman relaxation techniques.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: This is the correct answer because a hard and tender abdomen is a sign of concealed hemorrhage, which can lead to hypovolemic shock and fetal distress. The nurse needs to monitor the woman's blood loss, blood pressure, pulse, and fetal heart rate to detect any complications and intervene accordingly.
Choice B: This is incorrect because opioid pain medication can mask the signs of shock and fetal distress, and may also cause respiratory depression in both the mother and the fetus. Pain relief should be given after assessing the woman's condition and consulting with the physician.
Choice C: This is incorrect because documenting the findings is not a priority action. The nurse needs to act quickly to prevent further blood loss and fetal compromise, and report the findings to the physician.
Choice D: This is incorrect because relaxation techniques may not be effective in reducing the pain and anxiety caused by abruptio placentae. The nurse should provide emotional support and reassurance to the woman, but also focus on assessing and managing her physical condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice a) Insert an indwelling urinary catheter is incorrect because this is not a priority action for a client who has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This type of bleeding is suggestive of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter can cause trauma to the cervix or the placenta, which can worsen the bleeding and endanger the mother and the fetus. Therefore, this action should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
Choice b) Prepare the abdominal and perineal areas is incorrect because this is not a priority action for a client who has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This type of bleeding is suggestive of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. Preparing the abdominal and perineal areas can be done before performing a cesarean section, which is usually the preferred mode of delivery for placenta previa. However, this action should be done after stabilizing the client's condition and obtaining informed consent for surgery.
Choice c) Witness the signature for informed consent for surgery is incorrect because this is not a priority action for a client who has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This type of bleeding is suggestive of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery.
Witnessing the signature for informed consent for surgery can be done before performing a cesarean section, which is usually the preferred mode of delivery for placenta previa. However, this action should be done after stabilizing the client's condition and explaining the risks and benefits of surgery.
Choice d) Initiate IV access is correct because this is the priority action for a client who has a large amount of painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. This type of bleeding is suggestive of placenta previa, which is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. Initiating IV access can help to restore fluid volume, prevent hypovolemic shock, administer medications such as oxytocin or blood products if needed, and prepare for emergency cesarean section if indicated. Therefore, this action should be done as soon as possible to save the life of the mother and the fetus.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice result from breakdown of erythrocytes. Jaundice is caused by the accumulation of bilirubin, a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are destroyed. However, the rate and extent of hemolysis differ between the two types of jaundice.
Choice B: This is incorrect because kernicterus is a rare and serious complication of jaundice, not a usual outcome. Kernicterus occurs when bilirubin levels are very high and the pigment deposits in the brain, causing neurological damage. It can affect both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice, but it is more likely to occur in nonphysiological jaundice due to higher bilirubin levels and underlying conditions.
Choice C: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice begin at the head and progress down the body. This is because bilirubin accumulates in areas with high fat content, such as the skin, eyes, and brain. The distribution of jaundice depends on the level of bilirubin in the blood, not on the type of jaundice.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because nonphysiological jaundice appears in the first 24 hours of life, whereas physiological jaundice appears after the first 24 hours of life. Nonphysiological jaundice is caused by factors that increase hemolysis or impair bilirubin metabolism or excretion, such as blood group incompatibility, infection, liver disease, or enzyme deficiency. Physiological jaundice is caused by normal adaptation processes that occur after birth, such as increased red blood cell turnover, immature liver function, and delayed intestinal flora colonization.
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