Twenty minutes after the onset of symptoms, an adult client presents to the emergency department with slurred speech and right-sided weakness. After a computerized tomography (CT) scan reveals a non-hemorrhagic stroke, the nurse administers alteplase. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?
Headache with blurred vision.
Lower extremity edema.
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.
Frequent premature ventricular contractions.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: A headache with blurred vision following alteplase administration could indicate intracranial hemorrhage, which requires immediate intervention.
Choice B reason: Lower extremity edema is not typically an immediate concern post-alteplase administration unless it indicates a deep vein thrombosis.
Choice C reason: Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia requires monitoring, but it is not as urgent as a headache with blurred vision, which could signify a life-threatening complication.
Choice D reason: Frequent premature ventricular contractions should be monitored, but they are not as critical as a headache with blurred vision post-alteplase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A thick, dry, and dark area on bilateral heels may indicate the beginning stages of a pressure ulcer, but it is not the earliest sign. The earliest indication is usually a non-blanchable redness over a bony prominence.
Choice B reason: Broken skin without evidence of undermining could be a sign of a pressure ulcer, but it is not the earliest indication. The earliest sign is persistent redness over an area of pressure.
Choice C reason: A defined area of persistent redness over bone, especially if it does not blanch when pressed, is the earliest indication of a pressure ulcer. This stage is known as a Stage 1 pressure injury.
Choice D reason: A superficial sacral ulcer with defined margins indicates that a pressure ulcer has already developed and is not the earliest sign of its development.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Standard precautions are always used, but a mask is not specifically required unless performing a procedure that risks splashing. MRSA is primarily spread through direct contact, so masks are not the main precaution for this client.
Choice B reason: A low bacteria diet is not typically required for MRSA or osteomyelitis management and does not directly impact the treatment or prevention of infection spread.
Choice C reason: Contact precautions are critical for preventing MRSA transmission, as it can be spread by direct contact with the infected wound or contaminated surfaces.
Choice D reason: Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity is crucial to identify the specific strain of MRSA and determine the most effective antibiotic treatment.
Choice E reason: Monitoring the white blood cell count is important to assess the body's response to infection and the effectiveness of treatment.
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