What does the term 'first pass effect' refer to?
The initial phase of drug distribution
The rapid absorption of a drug in the intestine
The initial rapid excretion of a drug through the urinary system
The metabolism of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: The initial phase of drug distribution is not the correct definition of the term 'first pass effect'. Drug distribution is the process by which a drug moves from the bloodstream to the tissues and organs of the body. The initial phase of drug distribution is influenced by factors such as blood flow, tissue permeability, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. The first pass effect is not related to drug distribution, but to drug metabolism, which is the chemical transformation of a drug in the body.
Choice B reason: The rapid absorption of a drug in the intestine is not the correct definition of the term 'first pass effect'. Drug absorption is the process by which a drug enters the bloodstream from the site of administration. The rapid absorption of a drug in the intestine depends on factors such as the drug formulation, the pH of the gastrointestinal tract, the presence of food or other drugs, and the surface area and motility of the intestine. The first pass effect is not related to drug absorption, but to drug metabolism, which is the chemical transformation of a drug in the body.
Choice C reason: The initial rapid excretion of a drug through the urinary system is not the correct definition of the term 'first pass effect'. Drug excretion is the process by which a drug or its metabolites are eliminated from the body. The initial rapid excretion of a drug through the urinary system is influenced by factors such as the renal blood flow, the glomerular filtration rate, the tubular secretion and reabsorption, and the urine pH. The first pass effect is not related to drug excretion, but to drug metabolism, which is the chemical transformation of a drug in the body.
Choice D reason: The metabolism of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation is the correct definition of the term 'first pass effect'. Drug metabolism is the process by which a drug is chemically transformed in the body, usually by enzymes in the liver or other tissues. The first pass effect is a phenomenon of drug metabolism that occurs when a drug is administered orally and passes through the gastrointestinal tract and the liver before reaching the systemic circulation. The first pass effect can reduce the bioavailability and the effectiveness of the drug, as some or most of the drug may be metabolized and inactivated before reaching the site of action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ancef (ciprofloxacin) is not the correct answer for the nurse who anticipates administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic to a client diagnosed with a beta lactam resistant bacteria. Ancef is the brand name of cefazolin, which is a firstgeneration cephalosporin, a subclass of beta lactam antibiotics. Cefazolin is effective against gram-positive bacteria, but has limited activity against gram negative bacteria and anaerobes. Cefazolin is also susceptible to beta-lactamase enzymes, which are produced by some bacteria to degrade beta lactam antibiotics and confer resistance. The nurse should avoid using Ancef or any other beta lactam antibiotic for a client with a beta lactam resistant bacteria.
Choice B reason: Merrem (meropenem) is the correct answer for the nurse who anticipates administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic to a client diagnosed with a beta lactam resistant bacteria. Merrem is the brand name of meropenem, which is a carbapenem, a subclass of beta lactam antibiotics. Meropenem is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including gram-positive, gram negative, and anaerobic bacteria. Meropenem is also resistant to most beta-lactamase enzymes, except for metallo-beta-lactamase’s, which are rare and can be detected by laboratory tests. The nurse should consider using Merrem or another carbapenem for a client with a beta lactam resistant bacteria, unless they have a history of allergy or intolerance to beta lactam antibiotics .
Choice C reason: Flagyl (metronidazole) is not the correct answer for the nurse who anticipates administering a broad spectrum antibiotic to a client diagnosed with a beta lactam resistant bacteria. Flagyl is the brand name of metronidazole, which is a nitroimidazole antibiotic. Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic bacteria and some protozoa, but has no activity against aerobic bacteria. Metronidazole is not a beta lactam antibiotic, and it is not affected by beta-lactamase enzymes. However, metronidazole is not a broad spectrum antibiotic, and it is not suitable for treating infections caused by aerobic bacteria, which are more common than anaerobic bacteria. The nurse should use Flagyl only for specific indications, such as bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, or Clostridioides difficile infection .
Choice D reason: Zosyn (piperacillin tazobactam) is not the correct answer for the nurse who anticipates administering a broad-spectrum antibiotic to a client diagnosed with a beta lactam resistant bacterium. Zosyn is the brand name of piperacillin tazobactam, which is a combination of penicillin, a subclass of beta lactam antibiotics, and a beta-lactamase inhibitor. Piperacillin is effective against some gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, but it is susceptible to beta-lactamase enzymes. Tazobactam is a compound that binds to and inhibits some beta-lactamase enzymes, thereby protecting piperacillin from degradation and extending its spectrum of activity. However, piperacillin tazobactam is not effective against all types of beta-lactamase enzymes, especially those that are encoded by plasmids and can be transferred between bacteria. The nurse should not use Zosyn or any other beta lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitor combination for a client with a beta lactam resistant bacterium unless the specific type of beta-lactamase is known and susceptible to the inhibitor.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range of 135145 mEq/L. It does not indicate any adverse effect of the potassium sparing diuretic, which does not affect sodium excretion significantly. The nurse does not need to notify the health care provider about this finding.
Choice B reason: Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg is slightly above the normal range of 120/80 mmHg, but it is not a cause for concern. The potassium sparing diuretic can lower the blood pressure by reducing the fluid volume and preventing sodium retention. The nurse should monitor the blood pressure regularly but does not need to notify the health care provider about this finding.
Choice C reason: Serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is above the normal range of 3.55.0 mEq/L. It indicates hyperkalemia, which is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of the potassium sparing diuretic. The potassium sparing diuretic can increase the potassium level by inhibiting its secretion in the distal tubule of the kidney. The nurse should notify the health care provider immediately and prepare to administer interventions such as calcium gluconate, insulin, or sodium bicarbonate to lower the potassium level and prevent cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D reason: Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is at the lower end of the normal range of 3.55.0 mEq/L. It does not indicate any adverse effect of the potassium sparing diuretic, which does not cause potassium loss. The nurse does not need to notify the health care provider about this finding.
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