What factors in the history of a client with schizoaffective disorders puts the client at higher risk for type 2 diabetes? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
weight gain of 40 lbs. (18 kg) over the past 2 months
currently prescribed aripiprazole, a second-generation antipsychotic agent
sits & plays video games for 10-14 hours per day
frequently eats salads with grilled chicken
random blood glucose was 218 mg/dL with labs drawn 1 month ago
Correct Answer : B,C,E
A. While rapid weight gain is a concern, it's important to consider the underlying cause. If the weight gain is medication-related (as in option B), it's a significant risk factor. However, if it's due to other factors like increased appetite or decreased activity, it might not be as directly linked to diabetes risk.
B. Many antipsychotic medications, including aripiprazole, have been linked to metabolic side effects like weight gain, increased blood glucose levels, and dyslipidemia. These metabolic changes can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
C. A sedentary lifestyle is a well-known risk factor for type 2 diabetes. Reduced physical activity can lead to insulin resistance, a condition where the body's cells become less responsive to insulin.
D. A diet rich in vegetables and lean protein is generally healthy and can help prevent chronic diseases. This option does not directly increase the risk of type 2 diabetes.
E. A random blood glucose level above 200 mg/dL is indicative of diabetes. This is a clear marker of impaired glucose metabolism and a significant risk factor for type 2 diabetes.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This is a symptom of urinary tract infection, not renal colic.
B. This indicates kidney damage, which may occur as a complication of untreated kidney stones, but it's not a typical symptom of renal colic itself.
C. This is not a symptom of renal colic.
D. This is a classic symptom of renal colic, which is caused by the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter. The pain is often described as excruciating and can radiate to the groin or testicle.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The effectiveness of oral antihypoglycemic agents does not depend on dosage amounts that would make them cost-prohibitive. Instead, these medications work by stimulating insulin production or enhancing insulin sensitivity, which is not relevant for Type 1 diabetes.
B. While some individuals may have allergies to certain medications, this is not the reason oral antihypoglycemic agents are ineffective for those with Type 1 diabetes. The ineffectiveness is not related to allergy but rather to the underlying pathology of the disease.
C. While it is true that the risk of hypoglycemia exists with all glucose-lowering therapies, this is not the primary reason why oral antihypoglycemics are ineffective in Type 1 diabetes. The use of these agents may increase hypoglycemia risk in a broader context, but the fundamental issue is related to insulin deficiency.
D. In Type 1 diabetes, the pancreas produces little to no insulin due to autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells. Oral antihypoglycemic agents typically rely on the presence of some endogenous insulin to be effective.
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