The nurse is teaching an adult client with Type 1 diabetes that a primary cause of the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is:
omitted meals.
a GI disturbance.
not taking insulin regularly.
an insulin overdosage.
The Correct Answer is C
A. While skipping meals can affect blood glucose levels, it is not a direct primary cause of DKA. In some cases, if a person with Type 1 diabetes skips a meal and does not adjust their insulin accordingly, it could lead to hyperglycemia. However, the absence of insulin is the critical factor in DKA.
B. Gastrointestinal disturbances, such as vomiting or diarrhea, can contribute to DKA by leading to dehydration and altering insulin absorption. However, they are not primary causes. The main concern is that they may cause the individual to skip insulin or not manage their diabetes effectively.
C. DKA is primarily caused by a lack of insulin, which leads to the body breaking down fat for energy instead of glucose. This process produces ketones, which can accumulate and lead to acidosis. For individuals with Type 1 diabetes, consistently taking insulin is crucial to prevent DKA.
D. An insulin overdose can lead to hypoglycemia, not DKA. When too much insulin is taken, it can cause blood glucose levels to drop too low, which is the opposite of what occurs in DKA.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
A. The nurse should notify the prescriber about the current dose (7 mL/hr) because the patient is ordered 1600 units of heparin per hour. The current infusion rate needs to be assessed in relation to the aPTT result, especially if the aPTT indicates that the patient may be at risk for bleeding.
B. While having a second IV may be useful for administering fluids or medications in case of a bleeding emergency, there is no immediate indication for IV 0.9 saline in this scenario. The priority is to assess the heparin dosage and aPTT before making additional IV arrangements.
C. It’s important to assess the IV site for signs of infiltration, especially since the patient is on heparin therapy. Infiltration can affect the effectiveness of the medication and cause complications, so this assessment is vital.
D. While it is important to verify lab results, the nurse should primarily focus on addressing the current situation regarding the heparin infusion and the patient’s anticoagulation status rather than confirming lab results with the lab technician at this moment.
E. While protamine sulfate is an antidote to heparin, it is not warranted based solely on the aPTT result of 37 seconds. The normal aPTT range is typically around 30-40 seconds, depending on the laboratory standards, and the aPTT may not indicate that the patient requires reversal of heparin at this time.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is correct because clopidogrel is a blood thinner, and a common side effect is bleeding, which can manifest as black or bloody stools.
B. While this is general advice for people taking certain medications, it's not specifically related to clopidogrel.
C. There are no specific dietary restrictions for clopidogrel, and it can be taken with or without food.
D. Clopidogrel is often prescribed with low-dose aspirin to further reduce the risk of blood clots. However, it's important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications, including aspirin, while on clopidogrel.
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