Which age-related physiological change puts a client at higher risk for adverse medication complications?
Reduced muscle mass.
Decreased renal function.
Slowed gastrointestinal motility.
Thinning of the layers of the skin.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because older adults have a reduced ability to excrete drugs and their metabolites through the kidneys, which can lead to drug accumulation and toxicity. Decreased renal function can also affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of many drugs, altering their absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination.
Choice A is wrong because reduced muscle mass does not directly affect drug metabolism or clearance, although it may affect the volume of distribution of some drugs that are highly protein-bound or lipophilic.
Choice C is wrong because slowed gastrointestinal motility does not increase the risk of adverse drug events in older adults, although it may affect the rate and extent of drug absorption.
Choice D is wrong because thinning of the layers of the skin does not affect drug metabolism or clearance, although it may increase the risk of skin infections or injuries.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A client with expiratory wheezing after an albuterol treatment.
This indicates that the client has a severe bronchospasm that is not responding to the medication and may lead to respiratory failure.
The client needs immediate intervention to improve airway patency and oxygenation.
Choice A is wrong because a fasting blood sugar of 187 mg/dL is high but not life- threatening. The normal range for fasting blood sugar is less than 99 mg/dL.
The client may have diabetes or prediabetes and needs further evaluation and treatment, but this is not a priority over choice B.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has been called to surgery 2 hours early may need some preparation and education, but this is not an urgent situation.
The client can wait until the nurse has assessed the other clients.
Choice D is wrong because a blood pressure of 178/90 mmHg is elevated but not critical. The normal range for blood pressure is less than 120/80 mmHg.
The client needs a dose of atenolol, which is a beta
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
The nurse should acknowledge the need for intimacy and value themselves in sexual relationships, ask if sexual experiences cause any kind of physical or emotional discomfort, and discuss any changes in sexual experience or satisfaction since beginning new treatments ordered by care providers.
These actions show respect, empathy, and professionalism towards the client’s sexuality.
Choice A is wrong because waiting for the client to volunteer information about any sexual problems they are having may imply that the nurse is uncomfortable or uninterested in addressing sexuality.
The nurse should initiate the conversation and create a safe and supportive environment for the client to express their concerns.
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