Which client presenting in the clinic most likely reveals manifestation(s) of rheumatoid arthritis?
A 35-year-old female with morning stiffness for 25 minutes in the knee
A 45-year-old male with crepitus in the right knee
A 30-year-old female with red, soft, spongy joints in both knees
A 40-year-old male with osteophyte formation and decreased joint space in the left knee
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Morning stiffness lasting 25 minutes suggests mild joint inflammation but is not specific to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). RA typically involves stiffness exceeding 30-60 minutes and multiple joints bilaterally. This symptom alone is less indicative than red, spongy joints, making this choice less likely for RA.
Choice B reason: Crepitus in the right knee indicates cartilage wear, more characteristic of osteoarthritis than RA. RA causes synovial inflammation, not primarily crepitus. This 45-year-old male’s symptom suggests mechanical joint issues, not the inflammatory, systemic features of RA, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: Red, soft, spongy joints in both knees indicate synovial inflammation and effusion, hallmark signs of RA. This autoimmune disease causes bilateral joint swelling, warmth, and tenderness due to synovitis. This 30-year-old female’s symptoms align with RA’s clinical presentation, making this the most likely manifestation.
Choice D reason: Osteophyte formation and decreased joint space are typical of osteoarthritis, not RA. RA involves synovial inflammation and cartilage erosion without osteophytes early on. This 40-year-old male’s findings suggest degenerative joint disease, not the inflammatory changes of RA, making this choice incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pyrexia (fever) occurs when pyrogens, like cytokines (IL-1, IL-6), released during infection or inflammation, act on the hypothalamus to raise the body’s temperature set point. This triggers heat production via shivering and vasoconstriction, conserving heat to create a fever, enhancing immune response. This statement accurately describes the primary mechanism of pyrexia.
Choice B reason: Peripheral vasoconstriction occurs during fever to conserve heat but is a response, not the cause, of pyrexia. It results from hypothalamic signaling after pyrogens reset the thermostat. This statement is inaccurate, as vasoconstriction is a secondary effect, not the initiating physiologic mechanism of fever development.
Choice C reason: Fever increases, not decreases, metabolic rate to generate heat via thermogenesis. Pyrogens elevate the hypothalamic set point, prompting energy expenditure through shivering and muscle activity. This statement is inaccurate, as reduced metabolism would lower body temperature, counteracting the fever response triggered by infection or inflammation.
Choice D reason: Prostaglandin synthesis, particularly PGE2, in the hypothalamus is stimulated by pyrogens, raising the temperature set point to cause fever. Inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis (e.g., by NSAIDs) reduces fever, not causes it. This statement is inaccurate, as prostaglandin inhibition opposes the physiologic mechanism of pyrexia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: SGLT-2 inhibitors, like empagliflozin, block sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 in the proximal tubule, preventing glucose reabsorption. This increases urinary glucose excretion, lowering blood sugar in type 2 diabetes. The mechanism is insulin-independent, reducing hyperglycemia and promoting weight loss, making this statement accurate for their primary action.
Choice B reason: SGLT-2 inhibitors do not interact with transcription factors to improve insulin sensitivity. This describes metformin’s action via AMPK activation in liver and muscle. SGLT-2 inhibitors act renally, not on transcription factors, making this statement inaccurate as it misattributes their mechanism to a different drug class.
Choice C reason: Inhibiting hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity is metformin’s mechanism, not SGLT-2 inhibitors. SGLT-2 inhibitors work renally to excrete glucose, not by altering hepatic gluconeogenesis or peripheral insulin sensitivity. This statement is inaccurate, as it describes a different antidiabetic drug’s action.
Choice D reason: Blocking ATP-sensitive K+ channels is the mechanism of sulfonylureas, like glipizide, which stimulate insulin secretion from beta cells. SGLT-2 inhibitors act on renal glucose reabsorption, not beta cell channels. This statement is inaccurate, as it incorrectly assigns a sulfonylurea mechanism to SGLT-2 inhibitors.
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