Which of the following activities related to respiratory health is an example of tertiary health promotion and illness prevention?
Administering a nebulized bronchodilator to a client who is short of breath.
Teaching a client that "light cigarettes do not prevent lung disease.
Advocating politically for more explicit warning labels on cigarette packages.
Assisting with lung function testing of a client to help determine a diagnosis.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Tertiary health promotion and illness prevention focus on managing existing health conditions and preventing complications. Administering a nebulized bronchodilator to a client who is short of breath directly addresses an existing respiratory problem, aiming to relieve symptoms and prevent further respiratory distress. This intervention falls under tertiary prevention because it targets a client already experiencing respiratory symptoms.
Key points:
Bronchodilators open constricted airways, easing airflow and breathing.
Nebulizers deliver medication directly to the lungs, providing rapid relief.
Shortness of breath is a common symptom of respiratory conditions like asthma and COPD.
Prompt treatment of respiratory symptoms can prevent worsening of the condition and potential complications.
Choice B rationale:
Teaching a client about the risks of light cigarettes is an example of primary prevention. It aims to prevent lung disease before it develops by educating individuals about the harms of smoking.
Choice C rationale:
Advocating for more explicit warning labels on cigarette packages is a form of secondary prevention. It targets at-risk populations (smokers) to encourage behavior change and reduce smoking rates, ultimately lowering the incidence of lung disease.
Choice D rationale:
Assisting with lung function testing is a diagnostic procedure, not a tertiary prevention intervention. It helps to identify respiratory problems but doesn't directly manage or prevent them.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Urinary retention is the inability to completely empty the bladder. It is a common symptom of BPH, as the enlarged prostate can press on the urethra and obstruct the flow of urine. This can lead to several characteristic symptoms, including:
Feeling of incomplete bladder emptying: Patients often feel as though they haven't fully emptied their bladder, even after urinating.
Straining to urinate: It may take extra effort to initiate and maintain a urine stream.
Weak urine stream: The force of the urine stream may be noticeably reduced.
Intermittent urine stream: The flow of urine may start and stop repeatedly.
Post-void dribbling: Urine may continue to drip after urination has seemingly ended.
Urinary frequency: The need to urinate frequently, often at night (nocturia).
Urgency: A sudden, compelling need to urinate that may be difficult to postpone.
Bladder pain or discomfort: Pressure or pain in the lower abdomen, often associated with a full bladder. Pathophysiology:
Bladder outlet obstruction: The enlarged prostate physically compresses the urethra, the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. This obstruction makes it difficult for urine to flow freely, leading to incomplete bladder emptying.
Detrusor muscle dysfunction: The detrusor muscle, which forms the bladder wall, may become weakened or overactive due to the constant strain of trying to empty against resistance. This can further impair bladder emptying.
Neurological factors: In some cases, nerve damage or dysfunction may contribute to urinary retention, particularly in men with diabetes or neurological conditions.
Additional insights:
Chronic urinary retention can result in serious complications, such as bladder stones, urinary tract infections, and kidney damage.
Acute urinary retention is a medical emergency that requires immediate catheterization to relieve the bladder and prevent further complications.
Treatment for urinary retention typically involves medications to relax the prostate and bladder muscles, as well as lifestyle modifications such as limiting fluid intake before bedtime. In some cases, surgical intervention may be necessary to reduce the size of the prostate or widen the urethra.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Immobility: A bed-bound client is at the highest risk for pressure ulcer development due to prolonged pressure on bony prominences. The lack of movement prevents adequate blood flow to the tissues, leading to ischemia and tissue breakdown.
Age: Older adults have thinner, more fragile skin that is more susceptible to injury. They also have decreased subcutaneous fat, which provides less cushioning for bony prominences.
Nutritional status: Malnutrition is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers, as it impairs wound healing and tissue repair. Incontinence: Urinary and fecal incontinence can irritate the skin and increase the risk of breakdown.
Chronic medical conditions: Many chronic medical conditions, such as diabetes, peripheral vascular disease, and neurological disorders, can impair blood flow and sensation, further increasing the risk of pressure ulcers.
Choice B rationale:
Mobility: A client who uses a cane is still able to ambulate, which helps to redistribute pressure and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers.
Age: While a 75-year-old client is still considered an older adult, they are less likely to be at risk than a bed-bound client.
Choice C rationale:
Mobility: A client who uses a walker is able to ambulate, although their mobility may be limited. This still helps to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers compared to a bed-bound client.
Age: A 92-year-old client is at a higher risk due to their age, but their mobility helps to mitigate this risk. Choice D rationale:
Mobility: A mobile client is at the lowest risk for pressure ulcer development, as they are able to frequently reposition themselves and relieve pressure on bony prominences.
Age: While an 83-year-old client is still considered an older adult, their mobility significantly reduces their risk.
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