Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize and document as an adverse effect of epidural analgesia for a client who is in labor?
Polyuria
Maternal temperature of 37.4° C (99.4° F)
Hypotension
Fetal heart rate 152/min
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Polyuria is not an adverse effect of epidural analgesia. Epidurals may cause urinary retention due to bladder sensation loss from nerve blockade, not increased urine output. Polyuria could reflect unrelated conditions like diabetes insipidus, but it does not align with epidural’s neurological effects on bladder function.
Choice B reason: A maternal temperature of 37.4°C (99.4°F) is within normal range and not an adverse effect of epidural analgesia. Epidurals may rarely cause fever due to immune responses, but this temperature is physiological. It does not indicate a complication requiring documentation, per obstetric monitoring standards.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of epidural analgesia, as sympathetic blockade causes vasodilation, reducing blood pressure. This can impair placental perfusion, risking fetal hypoxia. Documentation is critical to prompt interventions like fluid boluses, ensuring maternal and fetal stability, per epidural pharmacology and obstetric care protocols.
Choice D reason: A fetal heart rate of 152/min is within the normal range (110-160/min) and not an adverse effect of epidural analgesia. While epidurals may cause maternal hypotension affecting fetal perfusion, this rate indicates fetal well-being, not requiring documentation as an adverse effect, per fetal monitoring guidelines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering an IV bolus of lactated Ringer’s is not indicated for preeclampsia without severe features, as fluid overload can exacerbate hypertension or pulmonary edema. P ओपेक्शिया involves endothelial dysfunction, and excessive fluids may worsen vascular leakage. Blood pressure and symptom monitoring are prioritized over fluid administration in non-severe cases.
Choice B reason: Misoprostol is used for labor induction or postpartum hemorrhage, not preeclampsia management. Preeclampsia requires blood pressure control and seizure prophylaxis, not cervical ripening agents. Misoprostol’s prostaglandin effects are irrelevant to preeclampsia’s pathophysiology, which involves vasoconstriction and endothelial damage, making this medication inappropriate for the condition’s treatment.
Choice C reason: Assessing blood pressure twice daily is insufficient for preeclampsia, even without severe features, as it requires frequent monitoring (every 4-6 hours) to detect progression to severe hypertension. Preeclampsia can rapidly worsen due to vascular instability, and infrequent checks risk missing critical changes, compromising maternal and fetal safety.
Choice D reason: Assessing for edema is essential in preeclampsia, as it reflects vascular leakage from endothelial dysfunction. Edema, especially in the face or hands, signals worsening disease, necessitating closer monitoring or intervention. This assessment tracks fluid retention, a key pathophysiological feature of preeclampsia, aiding in early detection of progression to severe features.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Covering the baby’s eyes during biliblanket use is unnecessary, as the device emits low-intensity light focused on the skin, not the eyes. Unlike overhead phototherapy, biliblankets pose minimal risk of retinal damage. Eye protection is reserved for high-intensity light exposure, per neonatal jaundice treatment guidelines.
Choice B reason: Offering glucose water after feedings is not recommended, as breast milk or formula provides adequate hydration and nutrition. Glucose water may disrupt feeding cues and reduce milk intake, potentially worsening jaundice by limiting caloric support for liver conjugation of bilirubin, per neonatal nutritional recommendations.
Choice C reason: Checking bilirubin levels every 6 hours at home is impractical, as it requires laboratory testing. Home phototherapy relies on periodic provider-ordered tests, typically daily or less, to monitor jaundice. Frequent checks are unnecessary and infeasible for parents, as bilirubin metabolism is managed through consistent phototherapy exposure.
Choice D reason: Removing the baby from the biliblanket for feedings is appropriate, as it ensures adequate nutrition and bonding without significantly interrupting phototherapy. Bilirubin breakdown continues with intermittent exposure, and feedings support liver function by enhancing bilirubin excretion, aligning with neonatal jaundice management and nutritional needs.
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