Which of the following is an FDA-approved indication for latanoprost?
Conjuctivitis
Ocular inflammation
Elevated intraocular pressure
Closed-angle glaucoma
The Correct Answer is C
A. Conjunctivitis is an inflammatory or infectious process of the conjunctiva requiring antibiotics or antihistamines. Latanoprost does not possess antimicrobial or antiallergic properties. It is not indicated for the management of surface ocular infections or redness.
B. Ocular inflammation is typically treated with topical corticosteroids or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs to inhibit arachidonic acid metabolites. Latanoprost is a prostaglandin F2-alpha analogue and does not reduce inflammatory cascades. It is not approved for uveitis or post-surgical inflammation.
C. Elevated intraocular pressure in patients with open-angle glaucoma or ocular hypertension is the primary indication. Latanoprost increases the uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor by remodeling the extracellular matrix. This physiological shift effectively reduces the internal pressure of the eye.
D. Closed-angle glaucoma is a medical emergency that often requires surgical intervention or different pharmacological mechanisms. Latanoprost is specifically labeled for open-angle glaucoma where the drainage angle remains physically open. It is not the standard primary treatment for acute angle-closure.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Veramyst is a brand name for fluticasone furoate, not fluticasone propionate. Although both are corticosteroids, they differ in their salt forms and pharmacokinetic profiles. Veramyst was specifically marketed as a unique aqueous nasal spray formulation.
B. Advair is a combination product containing fluticasone propionate and salmeterol. It is administered via oral inhalation for asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It is not the brand name for the monotherapy nasal spray formulation.
C. Flonase is the proprietary brand name for fluticasone propionate administered via the intranasal route. This glucocorticoid receptor agonist reduces inflammatory mediator release in the nasal mucosa. It is indicated for the management of seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis.
D. Atrovent is the brand name for ipratropium bromide, which is an anticholinergic agent. It functions as a muscarinic antagonist to reduce secretions or induce bronchodilation. It does not contain a corticosteroid and is pharmacologically unrelated to fluticasone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Fentanyl is a potent mu-opioid receptor agonist indicated for the management of chronic, severe pain. The transdermal system provides continuous systemic delivery of the drug over 72 hours. It is reserved for opioid-tolerant patients requiring around-the-clock long-term opioid treatment.
B. This agent does not possess sympathomimetic activity or alpha-adrenergic agonist properties required to reduce nasal mucosal swelling. It lacks the pharmacological profile of a decongestant like pseudoephedrine. It is not indicated or used for the management of congestion.
C. Fentanyl has no therapeutic effect on the inflammatory or histaminergic pathways associated with allergic rhinitis. It does not act as an H1-receptor antagonist or a nasal corticosteroid. It is not a clinical intervention for seasonal or perennial allergies.
D. Opioid analgesics do not inhibit the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center through the suppression of prostaglandin E2 synthesis. Fentanyl lacks the antipyretic properties found in cyclooxygenase inhibitors like acetaminophen or ibuprofen. It is never indicated for the management of fever.
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