Which of the following is not a recommended method for venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis in hospitalized patients?

Bed rest

Early ambulation

Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin

Intermittent pneumatic compression devices

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Rationale:

A. Bed rest: Prolonged immobility increases venous stasis, which is a major risk factor for VTE. Bed rest is not a preventive measure but rather a contributor to clot formation, making it inappropriate for VTE prophylaxis.

B. Early ambulation: Encouraging patients to walk as soon as medically feasible promotes venous return and reduces stasis in the lower extremities. This is one of the most effective non-pharmacologic measures for preventing VTE in hospitalized patients.

C. Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin: Pharmacologic prophylaxis with LMWH helps prevent clot formation by reducing coagulation activity. It is widely recommended for patients at moderate to high risk of VTE.

D. Intermittent pneumatic compression devices: These mechanical devices enhance venous return in the legs by rhythmic compression, reducing venous stasis. They are often used when anticoagulation therapy is contraindicated.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Hypertension: Elevated blood pressure is not a hallmark of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state. Clients with HHS often present with hypotension and tachycardia due to severe dehydration rather than hypertension.

B. Ketosis: Ketosis is uncommon in HHS because type 2 diabetes typically maintains enough insulin activity to prevent significant ketone production. Ketosis is more characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

C. Plasma osmolarity of 350 mOsm/L: A plasma osmolarity greater than 320 mOsm/L is a defining diagnostic feature of HHS. The marked hyperosmolarity results from extreme hyperglycemia and profound dehydration, leading to severe neurological manifestations.

D. Glucose level of 500 mg/dl: Although elevated glucose levels are seen in HHS, they are usually much higher, often above 600 mg/dl. A level of 500 mg/dl indicates hyperglycemia but does not by itself confirm HHS.

A. Hypercholesterolemia B. Obesity C. Genetic predisposition D. Smoking E. Hypertension

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]

Explanation

Rationale:

A. Hypercholesterolemia: Elevated cholesterol, particularly LDL cholesterol, contributes to plaque buildup within arterial walls. It is a major modifiable risk factor because dietary changes, medications, and exercise can lower cholesterol levels and reduce atherosclerosis risk.

B. Obesity: Excess body weight is linked to hypertension, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance, all of which accelerate the development of atherosclerosis. Weight reduction through diet and physical activity is an effective modifiable strategy to lower cardiovascular risk.

C. Genetic predisposition: Family history and inherited lipid disorders increase the likelihood of developing atherosclerosis but cannot be altered. This factor is considered non-modifiable and requires more vigilant lifestyle modification and screening.

D. Smoking: Tobacco use damages the vascular endothelium, promotes inflammation, and increases LDL oxidation, accelerating plaque formation. Smoking cessation significantly lowers cardiovascular disease risk, making it a highly important modifiable factor.

E. Hypertension: Persistent high blood pressure damages the arterial lining and promotes plaque formation. Controlling blood pressure through diet, exercise, and medications reduces the risk of atherosclerosis progression.

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Which of the following is not a recommended method for venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis in hospitalized patients?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Explanation

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